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QUESTION 11
Zhich is the Cisco recommended technique for verifying the `as-is’ state of the business?
A. Presenting root cause analysis
B. Discussing the Business Model Canvas
C. Modeling high volume parts of the customer’s business process
D. Using “The five whys” questioning approach
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option represents a subject expert from a Cisco Channel Partner’s ecosystem recommended for you to use as a source of insight?
A. The customer’s lead procurement official
B. A government regulatory official familiar with the customer
C. A sales rep for one of the Partner’s competitors
D. An IT architect working at a software company that markets solutions bundled with the Channel Partner’s offerings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The business value approach helps you to do what? 100-105 pdf
A. Ensure that requirements gathering take the smallest possible resource and time
B. Use various techniques to add value through the discovery process
C. Bring sales opportunities earlier into the customer business roadmap, to avoid risks from possible budget cuts
D. Recommend services beyond the customer’s skill set, so you gain higher revenue
Correct Answer: B
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 14            100-105 dumps
Which is the preferred aid to help you structure discovery meetings with customers?
A. IT cost analysis
B. Business case for the last two proposals
C. An article with a checklist showing advantages of your product vs.competitors
D. Strategic Question Asking Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When discovering requirements, which behavior is appropriate?
A. End meetings earlier than planned to show a sense of urgency
B. Avoid taking notes, since you can always return for a follow up
C. Answer customer questions with details and numbers, to convince them you know what they need
D. Actively listen to the customer’s comments and effectively take notes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which is recommended as a good source to provide requirements in a customer engagement?
A. Individuals at firms who have purchased the customer’s services
B. Subject experts from the company’s strategy organization
C. Consultants who did projects for the customer organization 3 years ago
D. 3rd party staffing specialists / recruiters hired by the customer to fill positions during a busy work season
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When 802.1X is implemented, how do the client (supplicant) and authenticator communicate? 100-105 pdf
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. MAB
D. EAPOL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which approach is recommended for gaining deeper insight into pain points raised by a senior customer business leader?
A. Inform the customer of some statistics about their competitors, to get a reaction
B. Ask open ended questions about goals and impacts from challenges
C. Lead an exercise to define revenue the customer could gain from using remote experts on sales calls
D. Speak with peers of the customer leader, to find out whether this person has a reputation for making problems sound bigger than they really are
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which is true of a Business Motivation Model? 100-105 dumps
A. It includes detailed financial goals for the customer
B. It companies the priorities across levels of the customer organization
C. It requires that you understand the customer’s bonus plan for executives
D. It describes influences that are behind customer priorities and operating activities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint and statement of requirements are equivalent in accuracy
B. Viewpoints describe a stakeholder’s preference and desired capability
C. Requirements can be met, while viewpoints reflect stretch goals that are more difficult to realize
D. For a viewpoint to be considered, you should confirm at least three stakeholders agree it is a top priority
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about late collisions are true? 200-125 pdf (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface? 200-125 dumps
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to exhibit:
200-125 dumps
Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C,F

QUESTION 9
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

QUESTION 10
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C,D

QUESTION 11
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server.
What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? 200-125 pdf (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. 200-125 dumps
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You submitted a column analysis job with the “Retain Scripts” set to no. The column analysis job finished with an “error encountered” final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client. Which option would allow you to find the source of the error?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.
B. Rerun the job with the “Retain Scripts” turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can you take to minimize performance impact? C2090-424 pdf
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Correct Answer: A
C2090-424 dumps
QUESTION 4                C2090-424 dumps
Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN’s (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN’s are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information Analyzer analysis database. Which statement is true? C2090-424 pdf
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction of the analysis and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis database) for the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using Information server security to restrict access.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which four analysis types does the Column Analysis process include?
A. domain analysis, constraint analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
B. domain analysis, data classification analysis, key analysis, data properties analysis
C. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
D. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, standardization analysis
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two statements identify ways you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.) C2090-424 dumps
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of the reporting functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 for a customer.
The customer requires that the Email Router component be used. MB2-718 pdf
You need to identify to the customer which email solutions are supported by the Email Router.
Which three email solutions should you identity? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
B. Exchange ActiveSync
C. A Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server for outgoing email
D. Microsoft Exchange Online
E. A Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) server for incoming email
Correct Answer: ABC
MB2-718 dumps
QUESTION 3           MB2-718 dumps
You are using the Dynamics CRM 2013 Email Router to transfer email to a Dynamics CRM 2015 server.
Users report that email is tracked, but tasks, appointments, and contacts are not tracked.
You need to ensure that the tasks, appointments, and contacts are tracked.
What should you do?
A. Modify the file system permissions for the users.
B. Deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
C. Upgrade the Email Router.
D. Modify the configuration of the Email Router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization.
You need to create a copy of the organization within the same deployment.
What should you do first?
A. Disable the organization.
B. Back up the organization database.
C. Restore the organization database.
D. Disable the server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement correctly describes the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook client application? MB2-718 dumps
A. The Dynamics CRM 2013 French language pack can be upgraded to the Dynamics CRM 2015 English language pack.
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2011.
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in offline mode or online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2013.
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers.
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook to use the URL of https: // crm. contoso. com: 5555 for the Discovery Web Service.
What should you do?
A. Run setupclient.exe and specify the /A parameter.
B. Run microsoft.crm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/xo parameter.
C. Run microsoftcrm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/i parameter.
D. Run setupclient.exe and specify /targetdir parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
A manager at your company uses Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
The manager stores a large amount of offline data, but the new data is NOT available offline. You need to ensure that the new data added to Dynamics CRM 2015 is available to the manager offline.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to Microsoft SQL Server Express 2014.
B. Defragment the hard disk drive of the manager’s computer.
C. Modify the Offline Synchronization Filters for Outlook.
D. Modify the Outlook Synchronization Filters.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message header, such as the sender and the recipient. MB2-718 pdf
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a development environment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. Users report that they cannot access the server.
You discover that the Dynamics CRM services on the server stopped.
You start the services, but the users still cannot connect.
You need to identify the cause of the issue.
What should you identify?
A. Another administrator removed the server from the Dynamics CRM environment.
B. The Microsoft SQL Server database is corrupt.
C. Another administrator disabled the server.
D. The Active Directory domain controllers are unavailable.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You discover that Dynamics CRM tracks a large amount of spam messages. MB2-718 dumps
You need to prevent Dynamics CRM from tracking all incoming email until the source of the SPAM is stopped. The solution must not prevent the tracking of outbound email.
What should you do?
A. Click Reject Email for the mailbox of each user.
B. Set Incoming Email to None.
C. Disable the Microsoft Dynamic CRM 2015 for Outlook add-in for all users.
D. Stop the Email Router.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 pdf
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)? 300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up 300-135 dumps
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 dumps
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255
command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 pdf
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
200-155
Which three EIGRP routes will be present in the router R4’s routing table? (Choose three.) 200-155
A. 172.16.1.0/24
B. 10.1.10.0/30
C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 10.1.11.0/30
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 192.168.1.0/24
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:
interface fastethernet 0/4            200-155
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)  200-155
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator for an enterprise organization must create and deploy a web application in the private cloud of the organization. The environment consists of two web servers: one application server and one database server. The application stack should be available only to Internet traffic while keeping the database and application server completely secure.
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option lists the different container types available in Cisco UCS Director under Menu Bar > Solutions > VACS Container?
A. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 3 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
B. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 2 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
C. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
D. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
Answer: A
210-250
QUESTION 3                         210-250
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog?
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which option describes what end user portal access allows?
A. ordering of server and / or application environments based on preconfigured resources available to users access
B. deployment of templates and OVA files
C. sharing files with other portal users
D. registering Physical Compute resources to the environment
Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Where are the main fault logs for root cause analysis located?
A. on your local computer via an SSH session
B. on the server where the application is installed
C. on the database server
D. on the switch that connects the database and application server
Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Due to disk space constraints, the cloud administrator for a cloud service provider wants to see how much storage a particular organization is using for snapshots. Which report option in Cisco UCS Director provides that data? 210-250
A. Billing Report for a Customer
B. VM Activity Report by Group
C. Virtual Infrastructure and Asset Report
D. Storage Inventory Report for a Group
Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? 210-250
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Active Discovery Phase–In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.
PPP Session Phase–In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-175
Which one statement is true?          300-175
A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
You can filter what individual routes are sent (out) or received (in) to any interface within your EIGRP configuration.
One example is noted above. If you filter outbound, the next neighbor(s) will not know about anything except the 172.16.0.0/16 route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream. If you filter inbound, YOU won’t know about the route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream.

QUESTION 3
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the 300-175 autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command.

QUESTION 5
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped):
The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall.
The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on. · The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received.
The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port.

QUESTION 6
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the 300-175 network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.

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QUESTION 1
Your company has two cloud services named CS01 and CS02. You create a virtual machine (VM) in CS02 named Accounts.
You need to ensure that users in CS01 can access the Accounts VM by using port 8080.
What should you do?
A. Create a firewall rule.
B. Configure load balancing.
C. Configure port redirection.
D. Configure port forwarding.
E. Create an end point.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You manage an application deployed to virtual machines (VMs) on an Azure virtual network named corpVnet1.
You plan to hire several remote employees who will need access to the application on corpVnet1.
You need to ensure that new employees can access corpVnet1. You want to achieve this goal by using the most cost effective solution.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a VPN subnet.
B. Enable point-to-point connectivity for corpVnet1.
C. Enable point-to-site connectivity for corpVnet1.
D. Create a gateway subnet.
E. Enable site-to-site connectivity for corpVnet1.
F. Convert corpVnet1 to a regional virtual network.
Correct Answer: AC
70-533
QUESTION 3             70-533
Your company network includes an On-Premises Windows Active Directory (AD) that has a DNS domain named contoso. local and an email domain named contoso. com. You plan to migrate from On-Premises Exchange to Office 365.
You configure DirSync and set all Azure Active Directory {Azure AD) usernames as %username [email protected] com
You need to ensure that each user is able to log on by using the email domain as the username.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Verify the email domain in Azure AD domains.
B. Run the Set-MsolUserPnncipalName -UserPnncipalName [email protected] ntoso. onmicrosoft. com – NewUserPrincipalName %usemame [email protected] com Power Shell cmdlet.
C. Edit the ProxyAddress attribute on the On-Premises Windows AD user account.
D. Verify the Windows AD DNS domain in Azure AD domains.
E. Update the On-Premises Windows AD user account UPN to match the email address.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You plan to use Password Sync on your DirSync Server with Azure Active Directory {Azure AD) on your company network. You configure the DirSync server and complete an initial synchronization of the users.
Several remote users are unable to log in to Office 365. You discover multiple event log entries for “Event ID 611 Password synchronization failed for domain.”
You need to resolve the password synchronization issue.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Restart Azure AD Sync Service.
B. Run the Set-FullPasswordSync Power Shell cmdlet.
C. Force a manual synchronization on the DirSync server.
D. Add the DirSync service account to the Schema Admins domain group.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You administer a Microsoft Azure SQL Database database in the US Central region named contosodb.
Contosodb runs on a Standard tier within the SI performance level. You have multiple business-critical applications that use contosodb.
You need to ensure that you can bring contosodb back online in the event of a natural disaster in the US Central region. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Upgrade to S2 performance level.
B. Use active geo-replication.
C. Use automated Export.
D. Upgrade to Premium tier.
E. Use point in time restore.
F. Downgrade to Basic tier.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You manage a set of virtual machines (VMs) deployed to the cloud service named fabrikamVM.
You configure auto scaling according to the following parameters:
With an instance range of two to six instances
To maintain CPU usage between 70 and 80 percent
To scale up one instance at a time
With a scale up wait time of 30 minutes
To scale down one instance at a time
With a scale down wait time of 30 minutes
You discover the following usage pattern of a specific application:
The application peaks very quickly, and the peak lasts for several hours.
CPU usage stays above 90 percent for the first 1 to 1.5 hours after usage increases.
After 1.5 hours, the CPU usage falls to about 75 percent until application usage begins to decline.
You need to modify the auto scaling configuration to scale up faster when usage peaks.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Decrease the scale down wait time.
B. Decrease the scale up wait time.
C. Increase the number of scale up instances.
D. Increase the scale up wait time.
E. Increase the maximum number of instances.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
You manage an Azure subscription with virtual machines (VMs) that are running in Standard mode.
You need to reduce the storage costs associated with the VMs.
What should you do?
A. Locate and remove orphaned disks.
B. Add the VMs to an affinity group.
C. Change VMs to the Basic tier.
D. Delete the VHD container.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You manage a cloud service on two instances. The service name is Service1 and the role name is ServiceRole1.
Service1 has performance issues during heavy traffic periods.
You need to increase the existing deployment of Service1 to three instances.
Which Power Shell cmdlet should you use?
A. PS C:\>Set-AzureService -ServiceName “Service1” -Label “ServiceRole1′ -Description “Instance count=3”
B. PS C:\>Set-AzureRole -ServiceName “Service1” -Slot “Production” -RoleName “ServiceRole1″ -Count 3
C. PS C:\>Add-AzureWebRole -Name ‘ServiceRole1” -Instances 3
D. PS C:\> $instancecount = New-Object Hashtable$settings[‘INSTANCECOUNT=3] PS C:\> SetAzureWebsite -AppSettings $instancecount ServiceRole1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You manage a cloud service that has a web role named fabWeb. You create a virtual network named fabVNet that has two subnets defined as Web and Apps.
You need to be able to deploy fabWeb into the Web subnet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the service definition (csdef) for the cloud service.
B. Run the Set-AzureSubnet PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Set-AzureVNetConfig PowerShell cmdlet.
D. Modify the network configuration file.
E. Modify the service configuration (cscfg) for the fabWeb web role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your company is launching a public website that allows users to stream videos.You upload multiple video files to an Azure storage container.
You need to give anonymous users read access to all of the video files in the storage container.
What should you do?
A. Edit each blob’s metadata and set the access policy to Public Blob.
B. Edit the container metadata and set the access policy to Public Container.
C. Move the files into a container sub-directory and set the directory access level to Public Blob.
D. Edit the container metadata and set the access policy to Public Blob.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF
300-206
QUESTION 3                                    300-206
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet traceC. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices. 300-206
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

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