Citrix has released a version of Receiver for Windows 10 S that will make Microsoft even more fun with the school’s lightweight Windows. Receiver comes to the Store, to pipe apps and desktops into Windows-lite for Schools.

Microsoft launched Windows 10 S in May 2017 and recommended it to schools because it can only install apps from the Windows Store. That plan was advanced as likely to keep kids from messing things up with dodgy-ware sourced from who knows where.

At the press conference, Microsoft told those who want other applications to “choose Windows 10 Pro.” They now also have the option of downloading a new version of Citrix Receiver that is compatible with Windows 10 S.
Citrix
Receiver is Citrix’s XenApp application publishing tool and the client for the XenDesktop desktop virtualization suite. Citrix said this is just another version of Receiver for another platform, so there should be no problem with applications other than Microsoft Store to Windows 10 S.

The release of Microsoft’s press release led Microsoft to change the version of Windows 10, as Steve Teixeira, general manager of Microsoft’s Developer Ecosystem, asked Citrix to quote him: “Microsoft is excited to have Citrix Receiver for Windows 10 devices available in the Microsoft Store, making it even easier to safely and securely connect to your new and existing applications from any Windows 10 S device.”
Citrix
Teixeira added that “This announcement is another example of Microsoft’s strong partnership with Citrix to enhance and extend the capabilities of Windows 10 devices for the modern digital workforce.”

Citrix, in partnership with Nutanix, announced the launch of Citrix Cloud’s Nutanix InstantOn as the industry’s first Citrix Ready workspace device. This makes it faster and easier to provide secure digital workspaces in today’s hybrid cloud environment.

Citrix Ready workspace application design ideas are: You – our customers. You tell us that Citrix Cloud XenApp and XenDesktop Service radically simplify and enhance your ability to deliver high-performance virtual applications and desktops.
Citrix
Your journey to cloud computing begins with a hybrid cloud deployment and you place a premium on the design of XenApp and XenDesktop services to optimize the delivery of securely hosted applications and desktops in your local data center. And, you are eager to take advantage of the performance, simplicity and scalability of applications and desktops on the hyper-converged infrastructure solution in your local data center. Sounds familiar

When Microsoft launched Windows 10 S, it recognized the low-end PC is the ideal operating environment. Citrix Receiver requires at least 500MB of free disk space and 1GB of RAM, so maybe some of the lowest-end devices Microsoft mentioned are comparable to Windows 10S. But relatively inexpensive hardware will make 10S products of interest to buyers who need to go beyond Microsoft stores.

Reference: https://www.theregister.co.uk/2017/12/01/citrix_receiver_for_windows_10_s/

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Exam Code: 70-243
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
70-243 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
In Default Client Agent Settings, you enable Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory.
You discover that a group of client computers fails to report software inventory data.
The client computers report hardware inventory data.
You confirm that Configuration Manager can deploy Applications to the group of client computers.
You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue.
Which log files should you review? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Filesystemfile.log
B. Dataldr.log
C. Mp_sinv.log
D. Inventoryagent.log
E. Hman.log
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Your company has a production network and a test network.
Both networks have System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You create the following objects on the test network:
A configuration item named SQLServerCI
A configuration baseline named SQLServerBaseline that contains the configuration item
A collection named SQLServers that contains all of the servers on the test network that run Microsoft SQL Server.
You export the configuration baseline to SQLServerBaseline.cab.
You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand Compliance Settings.
You need to apply the configuration baseline to the servers on the production network that run SQL Server.
You create a collection named SQLServers that contains all SQL Servers from the production network.
What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click SQLServerCI, select Export, and then specify SQLServer Baseline.cab as the export file.
C. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the SQLServers collection.
D. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
E. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type SQLServers in the Filter… box.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You recently migrated from System Center Configuration Manager 2007 to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
Your network contains a client computer that runs the 64-bit version of Windows 7 and the 32-bit version ofWindows 7.
Some client computers have the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.
You have an Application named App1. 70-243 dumps
You have a 64-bit version of App1, a 32-bit version of App1, and a virtual version of App1. You need to deploy the Application to all of the client computers.
The solution must minimize the amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and create a target collection for each of the deployment types.
B. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and configure global conditions for each of the deployment types.
C. Create a new package for each version of App1.
D. Create a new Application for each version of App1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to receive an email message every day that lists all non-compliant clients.
What should you do?
A. Create an alert subscription.
B. Configure a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report.
C. Configure an in-console alert.
D. Create a ConfigMgr query.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You enable Client Push.
You run Active Directory System Discovery.
You discover that some of the discovered computers do not have the System Center 2012 Configuration Manager client installed.
You need to identify why Client Push fails of the client computers.
Which log file should you review?
A. Locationservices.log
B. Smsexec.log
C. Ccm.log
D. Sdmagent.log
E. Dcmagent.log
F. Rcmctrl.log
G. Wsyncmgr.log
H. Ciagent.log
I. Hman.log
J. Contenttransfermanager.log
K. Sitestat.log
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-243 dumps
(The exhibit shows that: Server5 and Server6 are in the perimeter network, while Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 are in the internal network.)
The network contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-243 dumps
You need to ensure that mobile device information is available in the hardware inventory.
What should you do first?
A. Install a management point on Server5.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTPS on Server5.
C. Install a management point on Server2.
D. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server3.
E. Install an enrollment proxy point on Server6.
F. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
G. Install a software update point on Server3.
H. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
I. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server5.
J. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server3.
K. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
L. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
M. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
N. Install a protected distribution point on Server1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager.
Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration Site named Site1 and a primary site named Site2.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2. 70-243 dumps
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You manage a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. The deployment contains a reporting services point.
You subscribe to all client status reports.
You need to subscribe to an Asset Intelligence report.
From where should you configure the subscription?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. the Report Server Web service site
C. the Monitoring workspace from the Configuration Manager Console
D. SQL Server Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You add a software update point to the environment.
You receive a message indicating that SMS WSUS Synchronization failed.
You need to retrieve additional information about the message.
Which log file should you review?
A. Locationservices.log
B. Smsexec.log
C. Ccm.log
D. Sdmagent.log
E. Dcmagent.log
F. Rcmctrl.log
G. Wsyncmgr.log
H. Ciagent.log
I. Hman.log
J. Contenttransfermanager.log
K. Sitestat.log
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers.
All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed.
App1 saves files to the C:\ABC folder.
All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc.
You configure Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension.
After six months, you discover that some of the client computers failed to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files.
You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a reporting services point.
You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
Which tool should you identify?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
D. Microsoft Access 2010 and Reporting Services Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-V
Exam Name: Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam
Exam Code: 1Y0-201
Total Questions: 129 Q&As
1Y0-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: A high number of Desktop OS machines are displaying as ‘Unregistered’ in Citrix Studio.
However, Desktop OS machines that are registered are functioning as expected.
What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The Delivery Controller is unable to register with DNS.
B. The Delivery Controller is NOT configured to trust XML requests.
C. A Digital certificate is NOT installed on the Desktop OS machines.
D. The affected Desktop OS machines are unable to register with DNS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is informed of latency at a branch office. Users report they are experiencing slow mouse and keyboard responses, as well as slow screen refreshes, while working within their Desktop OS machines. Users at the branch office access their Desktop OS machines through the NetScaler Gateway. Which tool could the administrator use to monitor the user experience at the remote office?
A. Citrix Scout
B. Citrix Studio
C. Citrix Director
D. Citrix Command Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to reduce power consumption during off-peak hours. With the current configuration, the Desktop OS machines will remain powered-on when users disconnect at the end of the workday. 1Y0-201 dumps How could the administrator reduce power consumption during off-peak hours?
A. Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerDesktopGroup.
B. Set the Reboot Schedule policy from within Citrix Studio.
C. Create a shutdown scheduled task on the Desktop OS machines.
D. Configure Power Management settings in an Active Directory Group Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What will continue to function while a XenDesktop site database is offline?
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. AnonymousConnections
D. Existing user connections to Desktop OS machines
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario: Auto-created client printers are enabled within a XenDesktop deployment. A Citrix Administrator receives complaints from users of the Finance group who say they do NOT have the option to print to tray three on their default printer. The administrator decides to implement session printing for only the Finance users to resolve this issue.
Which two steps should the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Enable legacy client printer names.
B. Configure network printers on the client device.
C. Disable automatic installation of in-box printer drivers.
D. Install the printer drivers on the Desktop OS machine.
E. Configure a session printer policy within Citrix policies.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to replicate a vDisk between two production Provisioning Services servers named PVS and PVS2. The Replication Status dialog box shows an orange warning signal with a message.
Click on the Exhibit button to view the dialog box.
1Y0-201 dumps
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. The SOAP service is NOT running on the PVS server.
B. The server time is NOT configured correctly on the PVS and PVS2 servers.
C. The Provisioning Services server does NOT have access to one of the vDisk locations.
D. The network card configurations on the PVS server do NOT match the configurations on the PVS2 server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure email alerts on performance threshold events for a XenServer resource pool. Which three types of XenServer alerts could the administrator set in XenCenter? (Choose three.)
A. Disk usage
B. CPU usage
C. Memory usage
D. Network usage
E. Storage I/O usage
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator discovers that some user profiles have grown to over 500 MB in size. The administrator wants to reduce the size of user profiles. 1Y0-201 dumps
Which method could the administrator use to reduce the size of future user profiles without incurring data loss?
A. Enable file exclusions in a Citrix policy.
B. Disable folder redirection Application Data.
C. Enable profile streaming for the user profile.
D. Disable’deletelocally cachedprofilesonlogoff’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers. Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?
A. TFTP
B. BootP
C. Stream
D. Two-Stage Boot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator is given the task of creating a new maintenance version for a vDisk from an existing maintenance disk.
Which task does the administrator need to complete before the new maintenance version of the vDisk is created?
A. Merge the vDisk.
B. Promote the version.
C. Release vDisk locks.
D. Unassign the vDisk from selected devices.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator is in the process of upgrading the edition of XenDesktop to Enterprise. After uploading the new license file to the License Server, what must the administrator do to continue the upgrade?
A. Run lmadmin.exe
B. Restart the Delivery Controller
C. Refresh the License Server Administration Console
D. Change the edition of the license used within Citrix Studio
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
How could a Citrix Administrator add a XenApp 6.5 deployment to a XenDesktop 7.6 deployment so that both are manageable from within Citrix Director? 1Y0-201 dumps
A. Execute the DirectorConfig.exe tool on the Citrix Director server.
B. Install a dedicated Citrix Director server for the XenApp 6.5 environment.
C. Add the XenApp 6.5 Data Collector to the registry on the Citrix Director server.
D. Add the name of the XenApp 6.5 Data Collector to service.AutoDiscoveryAddress in IIS.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 281 Q&As
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco TelePresence MX300 G2, what is the minimum bandwidth for 1080p30?
A. 768 kbps
B. 1152 kbps
C. 1472 kbps
D. 1873 kbps
E. 2560 kbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Network Appliance
Certifications: NCDA
Exam Name: NetApp Certified Data Administrator, Clustered Data ONTAP
Exam Code: NS0-157
Total Questions: 302 Q&As
NS0-157 dumps
QUESTION 1
The VLDB is out-of-quorum on the node serving as the master of the VLDB ring. Which four statements are true? (Choose four.)
A. A new VLDB ring master is elected.
B. Clients can write to volumes on that node.
C. Volumes cannot be moved to or from that node.
D. Clients can read from volumes hosted on that node.
E. New volumes can be created on aggregates hosted on that node.
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 2
What are the characteristics of Snapmirror? (choose three)
A. Provides data protection for disaster recovery
B. If the source FlexVol volume is lost, clients can restore data from the secondary to primary storage
C. Can asynchronously copy the source FlexVol volume to a disaster recovery replica
D. If the source FlexVol volume is lost or destroyed, clients can connect to the mirror image of the source data
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
For Vserver-aware NDMP backups, the ______________ must be enabled with cluster- aware backup extensions.
A. vServer management LIF
B. DMA server
C. Data LIF
D. Node management LIF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Fpolicy supports which of the following protocols? NS0-157 dumps (choose 6)
A. SMB 1.0
B. iSCSI
C. SMB 2.0
D. SMB 2.1
E. FC
F. SMB 3.0
G. NFS v3
H. NFS v4.0
Correct Answer: ACDFGH

QUESTION 5
New systems are shipped with the root volume in a 64-bit aggregate starting with which Data ONTAP release?
A. 8.0.0
B. 8.0.1
C. 8.0.2
D. 8.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
With clustered Data ONTAP 8.2 or later, which SAN component will no longer be supported?
A. Windows Server 2012
B. vSphere 5.1
C. Veritas DMP
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.2
E. AIX 7.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In Data ONTAP 8.1.1 Cluster-Mode, what is the maximum node size for SAN protocols? (Choose three)
A. 24 nodes
B. 12 nodes
C. 8 nodes
D. 6 nodes
E. 4 nodes
F. 2 nodes
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 8
Which LIF is associated with the admin vserver?
A. Admin LIF
B. Data LIF
C. Cluster management LIF
D. Cluster LIF
E. Node management LIF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
How many cluster ports does each node have by default?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
On wich component the QoS can be applied? NS0-157 dumps (Choose Two)
A. vserver
B. node
C. volume
D. qtree
E. aggregate
F. LUN
G. igroup
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 11
Which two SMB versions does Data ONTAP Cluster-Mode support? (Choose Two)
A. SMB 1.0
B. SMB 2.0
C. SMB 3.0
D. SMB 4.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which two now feature are available in Data ONTAP 8.1.1 C-Mode? (Choose two)
A. Flash pool
B. SSD Support
C. Infinite volume
D. Infiniband
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Within clustered Data ONTAP 8.2 or later, which two functionalities are supported with an external asynchronous FPolicy server? (Choose two)
A. Audit logging
B. Compression and decompression services
C. Encryption and decryption services
D. File Access
E. Hierarchical storage management
Correct Answer: AD

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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
Exam Code: 1Z0-062
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
1Z0-062 dumps
QUESTION 1
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You execute the following command from the root container:SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;
What is the result?
A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?
A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement? 1Z0-062 dumps
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace offline
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578:
ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:
1Z0-062 dumps
Which two statements are true? 1Z0-062 dumps
A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture?
A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
Correct Answer: BDG

QUESTION 9
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job’s elapsed time?
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?
A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPERoperating groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE; SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL; 1Z0-062 dumps
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 2
Exam Code: LX0-104
Total Questions: 120 Q&As
LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.
B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.
C. Handle the login of a user.
D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.
E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
When issuing the command ifconfig eth0 192.168.1.20/24 up, which of the following happens? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The address 192.168.1.20 is associated with the interface eth0.
B. A network route to 192.168.1.0 with the netmask 255.255.255.0 pointing directly to eth0 is created.
C. 192.168.1.1 is probed for router functionality and, in case of success, it is added to the list of default routers.
D. The addresses from 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.24 are activated on the interface eth0.
E. If eth0 was configured with a previous IP address, it is retained in addition to adding the new address.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What is true regarding the statement beginning with #! that is found in the first line of a script? LX0-104 dumps
A. It prevents the script from being executed until the ! is removed.
B. It specifies the path and the arguments of the interpreter used to run the script.
C. It is a comment that is ignored by the script.
D. It specifies the character encoding of the script.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file?
A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root.
B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow.
C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow.
D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the xhost program?
A. Grant or revoke access to a X11 session.
B. Install all packages and video drivers required to run X11 on a host.
C. Start the X11 server and announce its availability within the local network.
D. Send informational messages to all users logged into a host using X11.
E. Display the MOTD and other important information when a user logs in via X11.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the sticky keys feature in X?
A. To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once.
B. To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down.
C. To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit.
D. To repeat the input of a single character.
Correct Answer: A
LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 9
For accessibility assistance, which of the following programs is an on-screen keyboard?
A. xkb
B. atkb
C. GOK
D. xOSK
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager? LX0-104 dumps
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands can modify or set the password expiration for a user? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. chage
B. chexpiration
C. shadowconfig
D. passwd
E. userconf
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.
B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.
C. Handle the login of a user.
D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.
E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.
Correct Answer: AC

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-N
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Exam Code: 1Y0-250
Total Questions: 65 Q&As
1Y0-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only.
The administrator must include two-factor authentication.
Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake of a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, 1Y0-250 dumps the administrator needs to disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users’ continued access to published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which format should an administrator save the AppExpert Template files in order to import and upload to the NetScaler?
A. XML
B. ASP
C. CSV
D. HTML
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company had a single datacenter location with a single NetScaler installed. A second datacenter location was added and an administrator installed a second Citrix NetScaler at the second datacenter location. The NetScaler is used for load balancing internal infrastructure solutions.
The administrator plans to configure the environment so that it will continue to work even if there is a datacenter failure. Only the primary datacenter location is connected to the Internet. The configuration has to be synchronized automatically so that the configuration of both appliances is always identical.
How should the administrator configure the NetScaler devices so that continuity is maintained in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. As a GSLB cluster
B. In a VRRP configuration
C. As a high availability pair
D. As standalone appliances
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An administrator notices that a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair has changed the primary node several times in the past few days due to intermittent issues.
What could the administrator configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. Route Monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic. 1Y0-250 dumps
Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
Correct Answer: C
1Y0-250 dumps
QUESTION 7
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file.
What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-server key
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When a user launches a published version of Notepad, the user receives the following error message:
“Cannot connect to the Citrix XenApp server.SSL Error: The proxy denied access to 10;
STA393B6A5D1088; 9764757E39D0BEBB0BFC66E9EE146FF4 port 1494.”
What could be the cause of this error message?
A. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XML broker.
B. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
C. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
D. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the Secure Ticket Authority server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A number of administrators received the following error when they attempted to connect to the Configuration Utility using a secured HTTPS connection:
The site’s security certificate is not trusted!
One of the administrators installed a certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority on the NetScaler and is planning to configure the Configuration Utility to use this certificate.
Which NetScaler command must the administrator run at the command-line interface to configure the Configuration Utility with the new certificate?
A. set ssl service
B. set ssl vserver
C. bind ssl service
D. bind ssl vserver
Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A company currently has a working production XenApp and NetScaler environment. An administrator recently implemented a test NetScaler environment and tried to duplicate the NetScaler Gateway configuration from the production environment in the test environment. 1Y0-250 dumps When the administrator configured the Secure Ticket Authority in the test environment, the Secure Ticket Authority showed a DOWN state. The administrator verified that the Secure Ticket Authority state shows as UP on the production NetScaler.
What should the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetScaler route table
B. NetScaler Gateway Resources
C. NetScaler Gateway Session Profiles
D. Secure Ticket Authority server IP address
Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Certification
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Exam Code: 70-773
Total Questions: 102 Q&As

QUESTION 1
A company has client computers that run Windows 8.
You install a new device on a client computer. The device installation includes an application that runs when the computer starts. You experience problems with the application.
You need to prevent the application from running when the computer starts, without affecting any other application.
What should you do?
A. Configure the application by using Task Manager.
B. Run the bcdedit command.
C. Configure the device by using Device Manager.
D. Run the msconuig command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows 8.
You need to assign static IPv6 addresses to the client computers.
Which Windows Powershellcmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetTCPSetting
B. Set-NetIPInterface
C. Set-NetlPv6Protocol
D. set-NetIPAddress
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You update the video card driver on a portable computer that runs Windows 8.
When a user connects the portable computer to an external monitor, the external monitor duplicates the display on the portable computer screen.
You need to ensure that the user can display additional desktop space on the external monitor.
What should you do?
A. Run the DisplaySwitch /extend command.
B. Start the computer from the Windows 8 installation media and perform a system image recovery.
C. Roll back the video card driver to the previous version.
D. Run the sic /scannow command.
Correct Answer: A
70-773 dumps
QUESTION 4
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows 8. 70-773 dumps
You need to assign static IPv6 addresses to the client computers.
Which Windows Powershellcmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetTCPSetting
B. Set-NetIPInterface
C. Set-NetlPv6Protocol
D. set-NetIPAddress
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A portable computer that runs Windows 8 uses a mobile broadband connection for the corporate wireless network. The computer also has a wired corporate network connection.
The computer successfully downloads Windows updates when connected to either network.
You need to ensure that the computer automatically downloads updates by using Windows Update only while connected to the wired corporate network connection.
What should you do?
A. Set the corporate wireless network to metered.
B. Set the corporate wireless network to non-metered.
C. Configure the Specify intranet Microsoft update service location local Group Policy setting.
D. Configure a Windows Firewall connection security rule.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A company has client computers that run Windows 8 in a kiosk environment. 70-773 pdf
You need to ensure that Windows updates are automatically applied and cannot be disabled by users.
What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Update to install updates automatically.
B. In the local Group Policy, enable the Turn on recommended updates via Automatic Updates policy setting.
C. msiexec /i app1.msi /qn
D. In the local Group Policy, configure the Remove access to use all Windows Update features policy setting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 8.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do?
A. Configure the active power plan to disable Wake Timers.
B. Configure the active power plan to use Fast Startup.
C. In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
D. In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows XP 64-bit Edition.
You are deploying new computers that run a 32-bit version of Windows B.
You need to transfer the contents of each user’s Documents folder to the new computer by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Back up the folders by running the NTBackup command.
Then restore the backup to the new computer.
B. Manually copy the folder content to a USB flash drive.
Then paste the files to the new computer.
C. Use Windows Easy Transfer.
D. Use the User State Migration Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. The company uses Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption with the data-only option o all client computers. 70-773 dumps
You delete a file containing highly confidential information from your computer.
You need to clear the free space on the hard drive to minimize the chance of the confidential information being recovered.
Which command should you run on the client computer?
A. manage-bde –w
B. chkdsk/spotfix
C. diskpart clean
D. BdeHdCfg -target c: shrink
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. File History is on.
An employee downloads data to a folder on drive D named Archives.
You need to ensure that the user can restore files from the Archives folder by using File History.
What should you do?
A. Configure the File History advanced settings to include the Archives folder.
B. From the File History configuration options, change the drive and select the Archives folder.
C. Create a library named History and add the Archives folder to the library.
D. Move the Archives folder into the Windows system folder.
Correct Answer: C

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