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Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
Exam Code: 1Z0-062
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
1Z0-062 dumps
QUESTION 1
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You execute the following command from the root container:SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;
What is the result?
A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?
A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement? 1Z0-062 dumps
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace offline
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578:
ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:
1Z0-062 dumps
Which two statements are true? 1Z0-062 dumps
A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture?
A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
Correct Answer: BDG

QUESTION 9
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job’s elapsed time?
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?
A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPERoperating groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE; SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL; 1Z0-062 dumps
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 2
Exam Code: LX0-104
Total Questions: 120 Q&As
LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.
B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.
C. Handle the login of a user.
D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.
E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
When issuing the command ifconfig eth0 192.168.1.20/24 up, which of the following happens? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The address 192.168.1.20 is associated with the interface eth0.
B. A network route to 192.168.1.0 with the netmask 255.255.255.0 pointing directly to eth0 is created.
C. 192.168.1.1 is probed for router functionality and, in case of success, it is added to the list of default routers.
D. The addresses from 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.24 are activated on the interface eth0.
E. If eth0 was configured with a previous IP address, it is retained in addition to adding the new address.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
What is true regarding the statement beginning with #! that is found in the first line of a script? LX0-104 dumps
A. It prevents the script from being executed until the ! is removed.
B. It specifies the path and the arguments of the interpreter used to run the script.
C. It is a comment that is ignored by the script.
D. It specifies the character encoding of the script.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is true regarding the /etc/shadow file?
A. /etc/shadow may not be readable or writable by user root.
B. Only root is allowed to read and write /etc/shadow.
C. All users have full read and write access to /etc/shadow.
D. All users have full read access to /etc/shadow.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the xhost program?
A. Grant or revoke access to a X11 session.
B. Install all packages and video drivers required to run X11 on a host.
C. Start the X11 server and announce its availability within the local network.
D. Send informational messages to all users logged into a host using X11.
E. Display the MOTD and other important information when a user logs in via X11.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of the sticky keys feature in X?
A. To assist users who have difficulty holding down multiple keys at once.
B. To prevent repeated input of a single character if the key is held down.
C. To ignore brief keystrokes according to a specified time limit.
D. To repeat the input of a single character.
Correct Answer: A
LX0-104 dumps
QUESTION 9
For accessibility assistance, which of the following programs is an on-screen keyboard?
A. xkb
B. atkb
C. GOK
D. xOSK
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What of the following statements is true regarding a display manager? LX0-104 dumps
A. A display manager handles remote X11 logins only and has no purpose on a system that is not attached to a network.
B. The display manager is configured in the X11 configuration file xorg.conf.
C. There is only one display manager X11DM that must be started on all systems running X11.
D. After system startup, the display manager handles the login of a user.
E. Without a display manager, no graphical programs can be run.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following commands can modify or set the password expiration for a user? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. chage
B. chexpiration
C. shadowconfig
D. passwd
E. userconf
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 12
Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.
B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.
C. Handle the login of a user.
D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.
E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.
Correct Answer: AC

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-N
Exam Name: Implementing Citrix NetScaler 10 for App and Desktop Solutions
Exam Code: 1Y0-250
Total Questions: 65 Q&As
1Y0-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: An administrator is creating a NetScaler Gateway virtual server for mobile devices only.
The administrator must include two-factor authentication.
Which two steps must the administrator take to configure two-factor authentication for this environment? (Choose two.)
A. Bind the RSA policy first.
B. Bind the LDAP policy first.
C. Create an authentication policy.
D. Create a pre-authentication policy.
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 2
Scenario: An administrator implemented RADIUS with NetScaler Gateway as a two-factor authentication solution for a XenDesktop implementation. A planned outage is scheduled in wake of a software upgrade on the RADIUS infrastructure. During the outage, 1Y0-250 dumps the administrator needs to disable the two-factor authentication on NetScaler Gateway to enable users’ continued access to published applications.
Which action could the administrator take to meet the needs of the scenario without affecting the connected users?
A. Delete the RADIUS authentication policy.
B. Set the RADIUS policy to be secondary authentication.
C. Disable authentication on the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
D. Unbind the RADIUS authentication policy from the NetScaler Gateway virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
In which format should an administrator save the AppExpert Template files in order to import and upload to the NetScaler?
A. XML
B. ASP
C. CSV
D. HTML
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Scenario: A company had a single datacenter location with a single NetScaler installed. A second datacenter location was added and an administrator installed a second Citrix NetScaler at the second datacenter location. The NetScaler is used for load balancing internal infrastructure solutions.
The administrator plans to configure the environment so that it will continue to work even if there is a datacenter failure. Only the primary datacenter location is connected to the Internet. The configuration has to be synchronized automatically so that the configuration of both appliances is always identical.
How should the administrator configure the NetScaler devices so that continuity is maintained in the event of a datacenter failure?
A. As a GSLB cluster
B. In a VRRP configuration
C. As a high availability pair
D. As standalone appliances
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An administrator notices that a NetScaler high availability (HA) pair has changed the primary node several times in the past few days due to intermittent issues.
What could the administrator configure to ensure that HA failures are alerted?
A. SNMP
B. Syslog
C. Route Monitors
D. Failover Interface Set
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
After restarting one node on a two-node NetScaler cluster, an administrator notices that the node that was restarted no longer accepts traffic. 1Y0-250 dumps
Which action could the administrator take to resolve this issue?
A. Run the nsconmsg -g feature -d stats from the shell.
B. Run the sync cluster files command from the command-line interface.
C. Replace the cluster license file and restart the NetScaler software only.
D. Restart the NetScaler software and operating system for the failing node.
Correct Answer: C
1Y0-250 dumps
QUESTION 7
Scenario: An administrator plans to troubleshoot connections to the SSL virtual server configured on the NetScaler by using the WireShark tool. The administrator created a network trace file.
What will the administrator need to decrypt the network trace?
A. NS-root key
B. NS-server key
C. Private key of the root certification authority
D. Private key of the certificate that is bound to the virtual server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When a user launches a published version of Notepad, the user receives the following error message:
“Cannot connect to the Citrix XenApp server.SSL Error: The proxy denied access to 10;
STA393B6A5D1088; 9764757E39D0BEBB0BFC66E9EE146FF4 port 1494.”
What could be the cause of this error message?
A. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XML broker.
B. Web Interface CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
C. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the XenApp server.
D. NetScaler Gateway CANNOT reach the Secure Ticket Authority server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A number of administrators received the following error when they attempted to connect to the Configuration Utility using a secured HTTPS connection:
The site’s security certificate is not trusted!
One of the administrators installed a certificate from a trusted Certificate Authority on the NetScaler and is planning to configure the Configuration Utility to use this certificate.
Which NetScaler command must the administrator run at the command-line interface to configure the Configuration Utility with the new certificate?
A. set ssl service
B. set ssl vserver
C. bind ssl service
D. bind ssl vserver
Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario: A company currently has a working production XenApp and NetScaler environment. An administrator recently implemented a test NetScaler environment and tried to duplicate the NetScaler Gateway configuration from the production environment in the test environment. 1Y0-250 dumps When the administrator configured the Secure Ticket Authority in the test environment, the Secure Ticket Authority showed a DOWN state. The administrator verified that the Secure Ticket Authority state shows as UP on the production NetScaler.
What should the administrator check to troubleshoot the issue?
A. NetScaler route table
B. NetScaler Gateway Resources
C. NetScaler Gateway Session Profiles
D. Secure Ticket Authority server IP address
Answer: A

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Certification
Exam Name: Analyzing Big Data with Microsoft R (beta)
Exam Code: 70-773
Total Questions: 102 Q&As

QUESTION 1
A company has client computers that run Windows 8.
You install a new device on a client computer. The device installation includes an application that runs when the computer starts. You experience problems with the application.
You need to prevent the application from running when the computer starts, without affecting any other application.
What should you do?
A. Configure the application by using Task Manager.
B. Run the bcdedit command.
C. Configure the device by using Device Manager.
D. Run the msconuig command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows 8.
You need to assign static IPv6 addresses to the client computers.
Which Windows Powershellcmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetTCPSetting
B. Set-NetIPInterface
C. Set-NetlPv6Protocol
D. set-NetIPAddress
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You update the video card driver on a portable computer that runs Windows 8.
When a user connects the portable computer to an external monitor, the external monitor duplicates the display on the portable computer screen.
You need to ensure that the user can display additional desktop space on the external monitor.
What should you do?
A. Run the DisplaySwitch /extend command.
B. Start the computer from the Windows 8 installation media and perform a system image recovery.
C. Roll back the video card driver to the previous version.
D. Run the sic /scannow command.
Correct Answer: A
70-773 dumps
QUESTION 4
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows 8. 70-773 dumps
You need to assign static IPv6 addresses to the client computers.
Which Windows Powershellcmdlet should you run?
A. Set-NetTCPSetting
B. Set-NetIPInterface
C. Set-NetlPv6Protocol
D. set-NetIPAddress
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A portable computer that runs Windows 8 uses a mobile broadband connection for the corporate wireless network. The computer also has a wired corporate network connection.
The computer successfully downloads Windows updates when connected to either network.
You need to ensure that the computer automatically downloads updates by using Windows Update only while connected to the wired corporate network connection.
What should you do?
A. Set the corporate wireless network to metered.
B. Set the corporate wireless network to non-metered.
C. Configure the Specify intranet Microsoft update service location local Group Policy setting.
D. Configure a Windows Firewall connection security rule.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A company has client computers that run Windows 8 in a kiosk environment. 70-773 pdf
You need to ensure that Windows updates are automatically applied and cannot be disabled by users.
What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Update to install updates automatically.
B. In the local Group Policy, enable the Turn on recommended updates via Automatic Updates policy setting.
C. msiexec /i app1.msi /qn
D. In the local Group Policy, configure the Remove access to use all Windows Update features policy setting.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
You deploy several tablet PCs that run Windows 8.
You need to minimize power usage when the user presses the sleep button.
What should you do?
A. Configure the active power plan to disable Wake Timers.
B. Configure the active power plan to use Fast Startup.
C. In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Hibernate.
D. In Power Options, configure the sleep button setting to Sleep.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A company has 100 client computers that run Windows XP 64-bit Edition.
You are deploying new computers that run a 32-bit version of Windows B.
You need to transfer the contents of each user’s Documents folder to the new computer by using the least amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Back up the folders by running the NTBackup command.
Then restore the backup to the new computer.
B. Manually copy the folder content to a USB flash drive.
Then paste the files to the new computer.
C. Use Windows Easy Transfer.
D. Use the User State Migration Tool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. The company uses Windows BitLocker Drive Encryption with the data-only option o all client computers. 70-773 dumps
You delete a file containing highly confidential information from your computer.
You need to clear the free space on the hard drive to minimize the chance of the confidential information being recovered.
Which command should you run on the client computer?
A. manage-bde –w
B. chkdsk/spotfix
C. diskpart clean
D. BdeHdCfg -target c: shrink
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A company has client computers that run Windows 8. File History is on.
An employee downloads data to a folder on drive D named Archives.
You need to ensure that the user can restore files from the Archives folder by using File History.
What should you do?
A. Configure the File History advanced settings to include the Archives folder.
B. From the File History configuration options, change the drive and select the Archives folder.
C. Create a library named History and add the Archives folder to the library.
D. Move the Archives folder into the Windows system folder.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Zhich is the Cisco recommended technique for verifying the `as-is’ state of the business?
A. Presenting root cause analysis
B. Discussing the Business Model Canvas
C. Modeling high volume parts of the customer’s business process
D. Using “The five whys” questioning approach
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option represents a subject expert from a Cisco Channel Partner’s ecosystem recommended for you to use as a source of insight?
A. The customer’s lead procurement official
B. A government regulatory official familiar with the customer
C. A sales rep for one of the Partner’s competitors
D. An IT architect working at a software company that markets solutions bundled with the Channel Partner’s offerings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The business value approach helps you to do what? 100-105 pdf
A. Ensure that requirements gathering take the smallest possible resource and time
B. Use various techniques to add value through the discovery process
C. Bring sales opportunities earlier into the customer business roadmap, to avoid risks from possible budget cuts
D. Recommend services beyond the customer’s skill set, so you gain higher revenue
Correct Answer: B
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 14            100-105 dumps
Which is the preferred aid to help you structure discovery meetings with customers?
A. IT cost analysis
B. Business case for the last two proposals
C. An article with a checklist showing advantages of your product vs.competitors
D. Strategic Question Asking Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When discovering requirements, which behavior is appropriate?
A. End meetings earlier than planned to show a sense of urgency
B. Avoid taking notes, since you can always return for a follow up
C. Answer customer questions with details and numbers, to convince them you know what they need
D. Actively listen to the customer’s comments and effectively take notes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which is recommended as a good source to provide requirements in a customer engagement?
A. Individuals at firms who have purchased the customer’s services
B. Subject experts from the company’s strategy organization
C. Consultants who did projects for the customer organization 3 years ago
D. 3rd party staffing specialists / recruiters hired by the customer to fill positions during a busy work season
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When 802.1X is implemented, how do the client (supplicant) and authenticator communicate? 100-105 pdf
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. MAB
D. EAPOL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which approach is recommended for gaining deeper insight into pain points raised by a senior customer business leader?
A. Inform the customer of some statistics about their competitors, to get a reaction
B. Ask open ended questions about goals and impacts from challenges
C. Lead an exercise to define revenue the customer could gain from using remote experts on sales calls
D. Speak with peers of the customer leader, to find out whether this person has a reputation for making problems sound bigger than they really are
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which is true of a Business Motivation Model? 100-105 dumps
A. It includes detailed financial goals for the customer
B. It companies the priorities across levels of the customer organization
C. It requires that you understand the customer’s bonus plan for executives
D. It describes influences that are behind customer priorities and operating activities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint and statement of requirements are equivalent in accuracy
B. Viewpoints describe a stakeholder’s preference and desired capability
C. Requirements can be met, while viewpoints reflect stretch goals that are more difficult to realize
D. For a viewpoint to be considered, you should confirm at least three stakeholders agree it is a top priority
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 5
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 6
Which two statements about late collisions are true? 200-125 pdf (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which command can you enter to set the default route for all traffic to an interface? 200-125 dumps
A. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config-router)#default-information originate
D. router(config-router)#default-information originate always
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to exhibit:
200-125 dumps
Which two destination addresses will be used by Host A to send data to Host C? (Choose two.)
A. the IP address of Switch 1
B. the MAC address of Switch 1
C. the IP address of Host C
D. the MAC address of Host C
E. the IP address of the router’s E0 interface
F. the MAC address of the router’s E0 interface
Answer: C,F

QUESTION 9
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C

QUESTION 10
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C,D

QUESTION 11
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an FTP connection to a remote server.
What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? 200-125 pdf (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop.
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop.
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device.
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device.
Answer: A,D,E

QUESTION 13
Which two statements about IPv6 and routing protocols are true? (Choose two.)
A. Link-local addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
B. OSPFv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
C. EIGRP, OSPF, and BGP are the only routing protocols that support IPv6.
D. Loopback addresses are used to form routing adjacencies.
E. EIGRPv3 was developed to support IPv6 routing.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has builtin security mechanisms?A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. 200-125 dumps
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You submitted a column analysis job with the “Retain Scripts” set to no. The column analysis job finished with an “error encountered” final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client. Which option would allow you to find the source of the error?
A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.
B. Rerun the job with the “Retain Scripts” turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information Analyzer status window.
C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can you take to minimize performance impact? C2090-424 pdf
A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.
B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate check.
C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to troubleshoot this error?
A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.
B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.
C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.
D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.
Correct Answer: A
C2090-424 dumps
QUESTION 4                C2090-424 dumps
Which statement is true about analysis settings?
A. Default Analysis settings can be created for individual users.
B. Default Analysis settings cannot be configured for all projects.
C. Default Analysis settings can be configured at the project level.
D. Default Analysis settings are controlled by the DataStage Analysis project.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is true about ODBC DSN’s (data source names)?
A. No ODBC DSN’s are required.
B. You must manually create the Information Analyzer database DSN.
C. You must create a DSN for the data sources on both the client and server.
D. The Information Analyzer database DSN is automatically created at installation time.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You are installing Information Analyzer and plan to use Oracle as the Information Analyzer analysis database. Which statement is true? C2090-424 pdf
A. The metadata database must also be Oracle.
B. The metadata database does not have to be Oracle.
C. Only Oracle RAC (Real Application Clusters) is supported.
D. The Information Analyzer analysis database can not be Oracle.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
In a large enterprise, the human resource business unit wants to ensure the restriction of the analysis and analysis results to a set of HR managers. Which configuration will support this requirement?
A. Use operating system IDs and database IDs to restrict access.
B. Use Information Server roles and security to restrict access to analysis and results.
C. Install an Information Analyzer environment (analysis server, analysis engine, analysis database) for the HR business unit.
D. Install an analysis engine for each business unit and one analysis database using Information server security to restrict access.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which four analysis types does the Column Analysis process include?
A. domain analysis, constraint analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
B. domain analysis, data classification analysis, key analysis, data properties analysis
C. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, data properties analysis
D. domain analysis, data classification analysis, format analysis, standardization analysis
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
When analyzing large volumes of source data in column analysis, which two statements identify ways you can improve processing performance? (Choose two.) C2090-424 dumps
A. Use data sampling in Information Analyzer.
B. Add more space to the Metadata repository.
C. Modify the project Analysis settings to increase the buffer pools.
D. Modify the DataStage apt config file to use multiple nodes and parallel process the data.
E. Modify the Information Analyzer Analysis database config file to parallel process the data.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
When working with Information Analyzer reports, which two functions require use of the reporting functionality in the Information Server Web Console? (Choose two.)
A. Add the report to Favorites.
B. Create the report as a PDF.
C. Grant Access to report result.
D. Create a Log Messages report.
E. Choose Expiration Policy for Report.
Correct Answer: CE

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QUESTION 1
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that has 50 users.
A user named User1 has Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook installed.
User1 plans to manage another Dynamics CRM 2015 organization from Microsoft Outlook.
You need to add the second organization to Outlook.
What should you do?
A. Run the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook Configuration Wizard.
B. Add a Connected Service to the Office Account of User1.
C. Modify the URL of the Discovery Web Service server role.
D. Reinstall Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You plan to deploy Dynamics CRM 2015 for a customer.
The customer requires that the Email Router component be used. MB2-718 pdf
You need to identify to the customer which email solutions are supported by the Email Router.
Which three email solutions should you identity? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
B. Exchange ActiveSync
C. A Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) server for outgoing email
D. Microsoft Exchange Online
E. A Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3) server for incoming email
Correct Answer: ABC
MB2-718 dumps
QUESTION 3           MB2-718 dumps
You are using the Dynamics CRM 2013 Email Router to transfer email to a Dynamics CRM 2015 server.
Users report that email is tracked, but tasks, appointments, and contacts are not tracked.
You need to ensure that the tasks, appointments, and contacts are tracked.
What should you do?
A. Modify the file system permissions for the users.
B. Deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
C. Upgrade the Email Router.
D. Modify the configuration of the Email Router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one organization.
You need to create a copy of the organization within the same deployment.
What should you do first?
A. Disable the organization.
B. Back up the organization database.
C. Restore the organization database.
D. Disable the server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement correctly describes the Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook client application? MB2-718 dumps
A. The Dynamics CRM 2013 French language pack can be upgraded to the Dynamics CRM 2015 English language pack.
B. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2011.
C. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook can be used in offline mode or online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2013.
D. Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2013 for Outlook can be used in online mode when connected to Dynamics CRM 2015.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You install Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook on 50 client computers.
You need to configure Microsoft Dynamics CRM for Outlook to use the URL of https: // crm. contoso. com: 5555 for the Discovery Web Service.
What should you do?
A. Run setupclient.exe and specify the /A parameter.
B. Run microsoft.crm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/xo parameter.
C. Run microsoftcrm.application.outlook-configwizard.exe and specify the/i parameter.
D. Run setupclient.exe and specify /targetdir parameter.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
A manager at your company uses Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2015 for Outlook.
The manager stores a large amount of offline data, but the new data is NOT available offline. You need to ensure that the new data added to Dynamics CRM 2015 is available to the manager offline.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade to Microsoft SQL Server Express 2014.
B. Defragment the hard disk drive of the manager’s computer.
C. Modify the Offline Synchronization Filters for Outlook.
D. Modify the Outlook Synchronization Filters.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You need to create a relationship between email and records by using information that is stored in the email message header, such as the sender and the recipient. MB2-718 pdf
What should you use?
A. The tracking token
B. The Email Router
C. Server-side synchronization
D. Smart matching
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You have a development environment of Dynamics CRM 2015 that contains one server. Users report that they cannot access the server.
You discover that the Dynamics CRM services on the server stopped.
You start the services, but the users still cannot connect.
You need to identify the cause of the issue.
What should you identify?
A. Another administrator removed the server from the Dynamics CRM environment.
B. The Microsoft SQL Server database is corrupt.
C. Another administrator disabled the server.
D. The Active Directory domain controllers are unavailable.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You have a deployment of Dynamics CRM 2015.
You discover that Dynamics CRM tracks a large amount of spam messages. MB2-718 dumps
You need to prevent Dynamics CRM from tracking all incoming email until the source of the SPAM is stopped. The solution must not prevent the tracking of outbound email.
What should you do?
A. Click Reject Email for the mailbox of each user.
B. Set Incoming Email to None.
C. Disable the Microsoft Dynamic CRM 2015 for Outlook add-in for all users.
D. Stop the Email Router.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 pdf
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)? 300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up 300-135 dumps
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 dumps
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255
command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 pdf
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
200-155
Which three EIGRP routes will be present in the router R4’s routing table? (Choose three.) 200-155
A. 172.16.1.0/24
B. 10.1.10.0/30
C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 10.1.11.0/30
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 192.168.1.0/24
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:
interface fastethernet 0/4            200-155
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)  200-155
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC

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