2018 latest Microsoft Private Cloud Certification 70-246 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. Helpful newest Microsoft Private Cloud Certification 70-246 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012” is the name of Microsoft Private Cloud Certification https://www.lead4pass.com/70-246.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. The best and most updated latest Microsoft Private Cloud Certification 70-246 dumps pdf training materials and study guides free try, pass Microsoft 70-246 exam test easily at first attempt.

Best Microsoft 70-246 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1rRBXquebDxFzUIyucv_D2DohFtPD1b9s

Best Microsoft 70-243 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRS1BGaHdoc2dDLTg
70-246 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company has a private cloud that contains a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains a Service Manager infrastructure and an Orchestrator infrastructure. You plan to configure the private cloud to meet the following requirements:
Integrate runbooks to Service Manager requests.
Automate administration tasks by using runbooks.
Provide end users with the ability to perform administrative tasks.
You need to configure the private cloud to meet the requirements.
What should you do from Service Manager?
A. Register the Orchestrator Integration Packs.
B. Create an Exception Management Workflow.
C. Register a data source.
D. Select the sync folder for the Orchestrator connector.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Configuration Manager is an add-in for System Center 2012 – Orchestrator. It enables you to automate actions within Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, such as software and update deployment. In addition, it allows you create and modify collections. With this integration pack, you can also create workflows that interact with and transfer information to the integration packs for System Center Service Manager, System Center Data Protection Manager, System Center Operations Manager, and System Center Virtual Machine Manager. Configuring the System Center 2012 – Service Manager Connections A connection establishes a reusable link between Orchestrator and a Service Manager Server. You can create as many connections as you need to specify links to multiple servers. You can also create multiple connections to the same server to allow for differences in security permissions for different user accounts.

QUESTION 2
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Orchestrator, System Center 2012 Operations Manager, and System Center 2012 Service Manager infrastructure.
You discover that a service on a server repeatedly stops. You need to configure a solution to remediate the recurring issue automatically. What should you do?
A. From Service Manager, create an incident template.
B. From Service Manager, configure an incident event workflow.
C. From Operations Manager, configure the CI connector.
D. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
“You need to configure a solution to remediate the recurring issue automatically” Incident workflows are for Service Manager where fx the service desk can apply an incident template.

QUESTION 3
Your company has a private cloud that contains a System Center 2012 Service Manager instance.
Service Manager has the Self-Service Portal installed. You create a service offering that contains a single request offering. The service offering provides logged-on users with the ability to add their user account automatically to a group named ServiceGroup1. 70-246 dumps The company’s security policy requires that an administrator named Admin1 must approve all requests for group membership change You need to configure the infrastructure to meet the requirements of the company’s security policy.
What should you modify?
A. the service offering
B. the service request template
C. the request offering
D. the Service Offering Category list
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
For approval you need to add a Review Activity to the Service Request Template at the Activity tab.
Marcel Zehner wrote a good blog post about this:
News in SCSM12 (Beta) #2 – Service Requests
Hope this helps.

QUESTION 4
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. The network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
Operations Manager monitors a server named Operations1. Operations1 has a computer account in an organizational unit (OU) name ServerOU1. You create a group named GP1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-246 dumps
You create a rule named OMRule1 that generates an alert when an error is added to the Application log. You target OMRule1 to GP1. You discover that alerts fail to be generated when errors are added to the Application log on Operations1. You need to ensure that an alert is generated when an error is added to the Application log on Operations1. What should you modify?
A. the target of OMRulel1
B. the dynamic membership of GP1
C. the category of OMRule1
D. the explicit membership of GP1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
How does a rule get to an agent?
For any particular rule/monitor, OpsMgr will enumerate all instances of the target class and apply the rule to each. If there are no instances of the target class on a particular agent, then the rule will do nothing. It’s that simple. If I can’t target groups, why are they listed when I select a target for a rule? Groups are classes just like any other. They’re singleton classes where the class and the instance are one and the same, but they are classes nonetheless which is why they show up in the list with all other classes. There are really very few circumstances where you will target a rule at a group though. What if I do target a group? You can apply a rule/monitor directly to a group, but it will execute against the group object itself. OpsMgr will not enumerate members of the group and apply the rule to each. Any rules targeted at groups will actually operate on the Root Management Server since groups have no host and unhosted objects are managed by the RMS. How do I target some group of objects then? To the specific question of how to get a particular rule/monitor to a subset of components, you have two basic options. Let’s say for example, you have a particular subset of web sites that you need a particular rule to apply. You could target that rule at the IIS 2003 Web Site class for example, but that would apply the rule to all instances of that class. It would probably apply to sites that you didn’t want. 70-246 dumps Option 1 would be to create a new class and target the rule at the class. In the case of an IIS site, this would mean that you would need to go to the Authoring Console or raw XML and create a new class and discovery. That’s a more advanced solution that most customers will do and probably overkill anyway. Option 2 is the create a rule target at the whole class and disable it. Create a group with the sites you want and create an override for that group to enable your rule. This might sound like a workaround, but it’s a completely valid solution. How do I know if I’m selecting the right target? The easiest method to validate you are using a target that actually has instances is to use the Discovered Inventory view in the Operations Console prior to creating your rule/monitor. In the Actions pane is an option called “Change target type…” that will bring up the same Select a Target Type dialog box that you see when you select the target for a rule/monitor. This view will list all instances of the target class you select. You can validate which agents have an instance of that class and how many instances each has. If there are no instances listed, then the rule isn’t going to do anything. If there are instances, then you not only be confident that the rule/monitor will execute on the agent, but you can also view the properties of the instance that will be accessible to any rules/monitors targeted at it.
70-246 dumps
QUESTION 5
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. The network contains two network segments that are separated by a firewall. You have a management server named Server1. You create a discovery rule and configure the rule to discover SNMP devices. You discover that only the devices on the network segment that contains Server1 are discovered. You need to ensure that the devices supporting SNMP on both network segments are discovered. Which firewall port or ports should you allow on the firewall?
A. UDP 161
B. TCP 161 and UDP 22
C. UDP 5723 and UDP 5724
D. TCP 162
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
SNMP uses the default UDP port 161 for general SNMP messages and UDP port 162 for SNMP trap messages.

QUESTION 6
The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2008 R2.
The private cloud contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-246 dumps
The network segments are separated by a firewall. All of the TCP ports from 1 to 1024 are allowed on the firewall. You need to ensure that Server1 can send security events to Server2. What should you do?
A. From the firewall, allow TCP 51909 from Network1 to Network2.
B. From the firewall, allow TCP 5723 from Network1 to Network2.
C. Deploy an Operations Manager gateway server.
D. Deploy an SMTP smart host.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
ACS Forwarders Separated from the ACS Collector by a Firewall Because of the limited communication between an ACS forwarder and an ACS collector you only need to open the inbound TCP port 51909 on a firewall to enable an ACS forwarder, separated from your network by a firewall, to reach the ACS collector.

QUESTION 7
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains an Operations Manager infrastructure and a Service Manager infrastructure. 70-246 dumps You need to configure Service Manager to create incidents automatically based on Operations Manager alerts. Which object should you create from the Service Manager Console?
A. a subscription
B. an incident event workflow
C. a connector
D. a queue
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) –> System Center Service Manager(SCSM) CI Connector

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains an Orchestrator infrastructure and a Service Manager infrastructure. You need to automate user account provisioning for the Self-Service Portal. The solution must ensure that new user accounts are approved by a member of the human resources department. You configure the Orchestrator connector. Which five actions should you perform next? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area.)
70-246 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-246 dumps
Explanation:
70-246 dumps
1. Create Runbook Automated Activity Template
2. Extend service request class
3. Create Service Request template using the new Class and include the Runbook Automated Activity Template.
4. Create the Service Request Offering.

QUESTION 9
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. A server named VMM1 hosts the System Center 2012 Service Manager management server. A server named Server2 hosts the System Center 2012 Orchestrator management server. You plan to use a runbook named Book1 to update the status of Service Manager incidents. You need to ensure that you can create Book1, and then reference the runbook in Service Manager. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. From the Service Manager Console, add an incident event workflow.
B. From the Service Manager Shell, run the Set-SCDWJobSchedule cmdlet.
C. From the Orchestrator Deployment Manager, register the Integration Pack for System Center Service Manager.
D. From the Service Manager Console, create an Orchestrator connector.
E. From the System Center 2012 Orchestrator Runbook designer, create a connection.
F. From the Service Manager Shell, run the Enable-SCDWJobSchedule cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C,D,E

Explanation:
Install the integration pack for SCSM on Orchestrator and configure the connection settings (SCSM server name, User, Password) Create a new runbook First activity -> “Monitor Object” of SCSM integration pack -> Incident Class -> On Update -> Filter “Support Group” not equal “Tier 1” Add 6 “Send Email” activities -> 6 different recipients -> add the text in each mail body Link all 6 “Send Email” activities with the first “Monitor Object” activity On each link delete the default rule “On success” Add a new criteria -> Choose the “Support Group” from the data bus ->criteria of the first link “Support Group” equals “Tier 2” Do the same with the other Links and Support Groups.

QUESTION 10
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. 70-246 dumps The infrastructure has the System Center 2012 Service Manager Self-Service Portal installed. You create a new service offering. You need to ensure that only three users named Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 can access the service offering.
What should you do?
A. Add the service offering and the request offering to a Service Manager group, and then create a Run As Account.
B. Add the Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 configuration items to a Service Manager group, and then create a Run As Account.
C. Add the service offering and the request offering to a Service Manager group, and then create a User Role.
D. Add the Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 configuration items to a Service Manager group, and then create a User Role.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
With Role based security scoping in SCSM there is the possibility to configure a controlled environment for different service roles. A SCSM role profile is a configuration set to define access to objects, views in the console, operations they can perform and members of the role (AD User/Group).

Get the best Microsoft Private Cloud Certification 70-246 dumps exam practice materials in PDF format free download from lead4pass. High quality Microsoft Private Cloud Certification https://www.lead4pass.com/70-246.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 70-246 exam test, and to get certified by Microsoft Microsoft Private Cloud Certification, 100% pass guarantee.

High quality Microsoft Private Cloud Certification 70-246 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/2l44mGcYXQU

Free latest Microsoft MCSE 070-413 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update shared. Newest helpful Microsoft MCSE 070-413 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass. “Designing and Implementing a Server Infrastructure” is the name of Microsoft MCSE https://www.lead4pass.com/070-413.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Best useful Microsoft MCSE 070-413 dumps pdf training materials and study guides update free try, pass Microsoft 070-413 exam test easily at the first time.

Useful latest Microsoft 070-413 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRY1RKYlNPVUtxMWc

Useful latest Microsoft 070-489 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRXzA0dmNGcHJFeFk
070-413 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION 2
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.

QUESTION 3
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend which changes must be implemented to the network before you can deploy the new web application.
What should you include in the recommendation? 070-413 dumps
A. Change the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Upgrade the DNS servers to Windows Server 2012.
C. Change the functional level of both the domains to Windows Server 2008 R2.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Scenario:
The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.
The company is migrating to Windows Server 2012.

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations. Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
* The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature distributes traffic across several servers by using the TCP/IP networking protocol. By combining two or more computers that are running applications into a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-critical servers.

QUESTION 7
You are planning the migration of research.contoso.com.
You need to identify which tools must be used to perform the migration.
Which tools should you identify?
A. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
B. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) and Microsoft Federation Gateway
C. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
* Scenario:
All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com. two domain controllers for the research.contoso.com domain. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution for DHCP logging. The solution must meet the technical requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Event subscriptions
B. IP Address Management (IPAM)
C. DHCP audit logging
D. DHCP filtering
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: A central log of the IP address leases and the users associated to those leases must be created.
* Feature description
IPAM in Windows Server 2012 is a new built-in framework for discovering, monitoring, auditing, and managing the IP address space used on a corporate network. IPAM provides for administration and monitoring of servers running Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name Service (DNS). IPAM includes components for:
– Automatic IP address infrastructure discover)’: IPAM discovers domain controllers, DHCP servers, and DNS servers in the domains you choose. You can enable or disable management of these servers by IPAM.
– Custom IP address space display, reporting, and management: The display of IP addresses is highly customizable and detailed tracking and utilization data is available. 070-413 dumps IPv4 and IPv6 address space is organized into IP address blocks, IP address ranges, and individual IP addresses. IP addresses are assigned built-in or user-defined fields that can be used to further organize IP address space into hierarchical, logical groups.
– Audit of server configuration changes and tracking of IP address usage: Operational events are displayed for the IPAM server and managed DHCP servers. IPAM also enables IP address tracking using DHCP lease events and user logon events collected from Network Policy Server (NPS), domain controllers, and DHCP servers. Tracking is available by IP address, client ID, host name, or user name.
– Monitoring and management of DHCP and DNS services: IPAM enables automated service availability monitoring for Microsoft DHCP and DNS servers across the forest. DNS zone health is displayed, and detailed DHCP server and scope management is available using the IPAM console.

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.

QUESTION 10
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.

High quality Microsoft MCSE 070-413 dumps exam in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated latest Microsoft MCSE https://www.lead4pass.com/070-413.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 070-413 exam test, and to get certified by Microsoft MCSE, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

Best Microsoft MCSE 070-413 dumps vce youtube demo: https://youtu.be/1-TsEooqpMA

Update free latest Citrix CCE-V 1Y0-401 dumps pdf resources and vce youtube demo shared. “Designing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions” is the name of Citrix CCE-V https://www.lead4pass.com/1Y0-401.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Citrix exam. Get the best useful Citrix CCE-V 1Y0-401 dumps exam questions and answers free download from lead4pass, 100% pass guarantee.

High quality Citrix CCE-V 1Y0-401 dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 1Y0-401 exam test, and to get certified by Citrix CCE-V. Prepare for Citrix 1Y0-401 exam test with newest helpful Citrix CCE-V 1Y0-401 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free update, pass Citrix 1Y0-401 exam test easily at first try.

Download free latest Citrix 1Y0-401 dumps pdf resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VROTYxbEloTHlJZVk

Download free latest Citrix 1Y0-201 dumps pdf resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRRmptX1B0ZG1oYjA
1Y0-401 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which component should a Citrix Architect recommend to centrally audit any failed logon attempts to NetScaler Gateway? A Citrix Architect is asked to design a new external access architecture for CGE.
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix Command Center
D. Citrix NetScaler AppFlow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is using a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts, using a shared virtual disk storage repository for XenMotion, high availability, and the replication and backup of meta information the best design for the resource pools?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a disaster recovery process that leverages a backup solution.
B. It ensures simple setup with redundancy.
C. It bases resource pools on roles, and facilitates the movement of workloads from one resource pool to another in the event of maintenance or disaster recovery.
D. It ensures the separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, which optimizes performance and high availability.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. 1Y0-401 dumps Why does using Windows Deployment Services and centralizing the volume-activation process help manage the image versioning process?
A. It reduces licensing administration.
B. It helps manage version control.
C. It automates the license download process.
D. It enables the use of Multiple Activation Keys (MAKs).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario:
CGE\’s security officer states that, for compliance reasons, all network traffic between Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, and NetScalers must be encrypted.
Why does using SSL meet CGE\’s compliance requirements?
A. It eliminates the need to distribute an internal root certificate.
B. It encrypts end-to-end traffic from remote end users.
C. It enables the SSL Relay service.
D. It encrypts network traffic between XenDesktop, StoreFront, and NetScaler.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \’Active write back\’ when configuring group profiles benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It improves application performance.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
D. It improves data accuracy in volatile environments.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How should the architect configure high availability (HA) on a XenServer host to support an iSCSI SAN?
A. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and create a NIC bond.
B. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and enable Asymmetric Logical Unit Assignment (ALUA).
C. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a different Layer 3 network, run the HBA configuration utility, and verify that both can access the iSCSI storage array.
D. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a separate Layer 3 network, and enable XenServer Multipathing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy.
It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. 1Y0-401 dumps The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability.
Why is deploying MGMT as a VM hosted app on Windows 7 x86 with Machine Creation Services the best solution?
A. It supports 16-bit applications.
B. It meets the high-performance application demands of the Executives/Management end-user group.
C. It allows the installation of custom applications.
D. It offers faster change and rollback procedures.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Windows Deployment Services to facilitate image management?
A. By deploying a standard base image to virtual desktops
B. By deploying a base image from an XVA file
C. By centralizing the volume-activation process
D. By installing Windows applications into an image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements.
Why is Provisioning Services the best image management method for this environment?
A. It provides centralized image management.
B. It reduces the storage footprint.
C. It reduces network traffic.
D. It reduces infrastructure server requirements.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Why would the architect choose active-passive bonding when configuring network interfaces for storage networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What are the benefits of using Hosted Shared servers and manually installing the operating system?
A. It provides the highest end-user density at the lowest cost.
B. It provides the greatest level of end-user personalization and control.
C. It offers the lowest storage performance requirement and the highest end-user density.
D. It offers the lowest cost and the greatest application compatibility.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, 1Y0-401 dumps License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
How should the resource pools be designed to host the infrastructure workloads and virtual desktops to ensure high availability?
A. Resource pools comprising a maximum of eight XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be backed up daily, and third-party backup solutions should be implemented for the desktops.
B. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be on a storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be backed up daily.
C. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of all workloads should be on a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. Virtual machine meta information and data should be replicated to the failover site by the new storage solution.
D. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be on a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. Virtual machine meta information and data should be replicated and backed up.
Correct Answer: C

The best and most updated latest Citrix CCE-V https://www.lead4pass.com/1Y0-401.html dumps exam training materials in PDF format free download from lead4pass. 100% success and guarantee to pass Citrix 1Y0-401 exam test quickly and easily at the first time.

High quality Citrix CCE-V 1Y0-401 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/dnOoZzge8Yk

Citrix has released a version of Receiver for Windows 10 S that will make Microsoft even more fun with the school’s lightweight Windows. Receiver comes to the Store, to pipe apps and desktops into Windows-lite for Schools.

Microsoft launched Windows 10 S in May 2017 and recommended it to schools because it can only install apps from the Windows Store. That plan was advanced as likely to keep kids from messing things up with dodgy-ware sourced from who knows where.

At the press conference, Microsoft told those who want other applications to “choose Windows 10 Pro.” They now also have the option of downloading a new version of Citrix Receiver that is compatible with Windows 10 S.
Citrix
Receiver is Citrix’s XenApp application publishing tool and the client for the XenDesktop desktop virtualization suite. Citrix said this is just another version of Receiver for another platform, so there should be no problem with applications other than Microsoft Store to Windows 10 S.

The release of Microsoft’s press release led Microsoft to change the version of Windows 10, as Steve Teixeira, general manager of Microsoft’s Developer Ecosystem, asked Citrix to quote him: “Microsoft is excited to have Citrix Receiver for Windows 10 devices available in the Microsoft Store, making it even easier to safely and securely connect to your new and existing applications from any Windows 10 S device.”
Citrix
Teixeira added that “This announcement is another example of Microsoft’s strong partnership with Citrix to enhance and extend the capabilities of Windows 10 devices for the modern digital workforce.”

Citrix, in partnership with Nutanix, announced the launch of Citrix Cloud’s Nutanix InstantOn as the industry’s first Citrix Ready workspace device. This makes it faster and easier to provide secure digital workspaces in today’s hybrid cloud environment.

Citrix Ready workspace application design ideas are: You – our customers. You tell us that Citrix Cloud XenApp and XenDesktop Service radically simplify and enhance your ability to deliver high-performance virtual applications and desktops.
Citrix
Your journey to cloud computing begins with a hybrid cloud deployment and you place a premium on the design of XenApp and XenDesktop services to optimize the delivery of securely hosted applications and desktops in your local data center. And, you are eager to take advantage of the performance, simplicity and scalability of applications and desktops on the hyper-converged infrastructure solution in your local data center. Sounds familiar

When Microsoft launched Windows 10 S, it recognized the low-end PC is the ideal operating environment. Citrix Receiver requires at least 500MB of free disk space and 1GB of RAM, so maybe some of the lowest-end devices Microsoft mentioned are comparable to Windows 10S. But relatively inexpensive hardware will make 10S products of interest to buyers who need to go beyond Microsoft stores.

Reference: https://www.theregister.co.uk/2017/12/01/citrix_receiver_for_windows_10_s/

The best and most Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration 70-243 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo shared free update. High quality Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration 70-243 dumps exam training materials and study guides free download from lead4pass. “Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager” is the name of Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration https://www.lead4pass.com/70-243.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. Latest Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration 70-243 dumps exam practice questions and answers update, pass Microsoft 70-243 exam test easily at first try.

The best Microsoft 70-243 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRS1BGaHdoc2dDLTg

The best Microsoft 70-533 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRZF9feEh5eDcwVzA

Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Exam Code: 70-243
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
70-243 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
In Default Client Agent Settings, you enable Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory.
You discover that a group of client computers fails to report software inventory data.
The client computers report hardware inventory data.
You confirm that Configuration Manager can deploy Applications to the group of client computers.
You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue.
Which log files should you review? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Filesystemfile.log
B. Dataldr.log
C. Mp_sinv.log
D. Inventoryagent.log
E. Hman.log
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Your company has a production network and a test network.
Both networks have System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You create the following objects on the test network:
A configuration item named SQLServerCI
A configuration baseline named SQLServerBaseline that contains the configuration item
A collection named SQLServers that contains all of the servers on the test network that run Microsoft SQL Server.
You export the configuration baseline to SQLServerBaseline.cab.
You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand Compliance Settings.
You need to apply the configuration baseline to the servers on the production network that run SQL Server.
You create a collection named SQLServers that contains all SQL Servers from the production network.
What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click SQLServerCI, select Export, and then specify SQLServer Baseline.cab as the export file.
C. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the SQLServers collection.
D. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
E. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type SQLServers in the Filter… box.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You recently migrated from System Center Configuration Manager 2007 to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
Your network contains a client computer that runs the 64-bit version of Windows 7 and the 32-bit version ofWindows 7.
Some client computers have the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.
You have an Application named App1. 70-243 dumps
You have a 64-bit version of App1, a 32-bit version of App1, and a virtual version of App1. You need to deploy the Application to all of the client computers.
The solution must minimize the amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and create a target collection for each of the deployment types.
B. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and configure global conditions for each of the deployment types.
C. Create a new package for each version of App1.
D. Create a new Application for each version of App1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to receive an email message every day that lists all non-compliant clients.
What should you do?
A. Create an alert subscription.
B. Configure a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report.
C. Configure an in-console alert.
D. Create a ConfigMgr query.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You enable Client Push.
You run Active Directory System Discovery.
You discover that some of the discovered computers do not have the System Center 2012 Configuration Manager client installed.
You need to identify why Client Push fails of the client computers.
Which log file should you review?
A. Locationservices.log
B. Smsexec.log
C. Ccm.log
D. Sdmagent.log
E. Dcmagent.log
F. Rcmctrl.log
G. Wsyncmgr.log
H. Ciagent.log
I. Hman.log
J. Contenttransfermanager.log
K. Sitestat.log
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-243 dumps
(The exhibit shows that: Server5 and Server6 are in the perimeter network, while Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 are in the internal network.)
The network contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-243 dumps
You need to ensure that mobile device information is available in the hardware inventory.
What should you do first?
A. Install a management point on Server5.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTPS on Server5.
C. Install a management point on Server2.
D. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server3.
E. Install an enrollment proxy point on Server6.
F. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
G. Install a software update point on Server3.
H. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
I. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server5.
J. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server3.
K. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
L. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
M. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
N. Install a protected distribution point on Server1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager.
Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration Site named Site1 and a primary site named Site2.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2. 70-243 dumps
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You manage a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. The deployment contains a reporting services point.
You subscribe to all client status reports.
You need to subscribe to an Asset Intelligence report.
From where should you configure the subscription?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. the Report Server Web service site
C. the Monitoring workspace from the Configuration Manager Console
D. SQL Server Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You add a software update point to the environment.
You receive a message indicating that SMS WSUS Synchronization failed.
You need to retrieve additional information about the message.
Which log file should you review?
A. Locationservices.log
B. Smsexec.log
C. Ccm.log
D. Sdmagent.log
E. Dcmagent.log
F. Rcmctrl.log
G. Wsyncmgr.log
H. Ciagent.log
I. Hman.log
J. Contenttransfermanager.log
K. Sitestat.log
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers.
All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed.
App1 saves files to the C:\ABC folder.
All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc.
You configure Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension.
After six months, you discover that some of the client computers failed to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files.
You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a reporting services point.
You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
Which tool should you identify?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
D. Microsoft Access 2010 and Reporting Services Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.lead4pass.com/70-243.html dumps exam practice questions and answers free try, high quality Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration 70-243 dumps pdf training materials and study guides update.

The best Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration 70-243 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/J2YTx5RNMlY

High quality Citrix CCA-V 1Y0-201 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo free update. Lead4pass latest Citrix CCA-V 1Y0-201 dumps exam training resources and study guides update free shared. “Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam” is the name of Citrix CCA-V https://www.lead4pass.com/1Y0-201.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Citrix exam. The best Citrix CCA-V 1Y0-201 dumps exam practice questions and answers update free try, pass Citrix 1Y0-201 exam test easily.

High quality Citrix 1Y0-201 dumps pdf materials free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRRmptX1B0ZG1oYjA

High quality Citrix 1Y0-401 dumps pdf materials free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VROTYxbEloTHlJZVk

Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-V
Exam Name: Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam
Exam Code: 1Y0-201
Total Questions: 129 Q&As
1Y0-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: A high number of Desktop OS machines are displaying as ‘Unregistered’ in Citrix Studio.
However, Desktop OS machines that are registered are functioning as expected.
What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The Delivery Controller is unable to register with DNS.
B. The Delivery Controller is NOT configured to trust XML requests.
C. A Digital certificate is NOT installed on the Desktop OS machines.
D. The affected Desktop OS machines are unable to register with DNS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is informed of latency at a branch office. Users report they are experiencing slow mouse and keyboard responses, as well as slow screen refreshes, while working within their Desktop OS machines. Users at the branch office access their Desktop OS machines through the NetScaler Gateway. Which tool could the administrator use to monitor the user experience at the remote office?
A. Citrix Scout
B. Citrix Studio
C. Citrix Director
D. Citrix Command Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to reduce power consumption during off-peak hours. With the current configuration, the Desktop OS machines will remain powered-on when users disconnect at the end of the workday. 1Y0-201 dumps How could the administrator reduce power consumption during off-peak hours?
A. Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerDesktopGroup.
B. Set the Reboot Schedule policy from within Citrix Studio.
C. Create a shutdown scheduled task on the Desktop OS machines.
D. Configure Power Management settings in an Active Directory Group Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What will continue to function while a XenDesktop site database is offline?
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. AnonymousConnections
D. Existing user connections to Desktop OS machines
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario: Auto-created client printers are enabled within a XenDesktop deployment. A Citrix Administrator receives complaints from users of the Finance group who say they do NOT have the option to print to tray three on their default printer. The administrator decides to implement session printing for only the Finance users to resolve this issue.
Which two steps should the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Enable legacy client printer names.
B. Configure network printers on the client device.
C. Disable automatic installation of in-box printer drivers.
D. Install the printer drivers on the Desktop OS machine.
E. Configure a session printer policy within Citrix policies.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to replicate a vDisk between two production Provisioning Services servers named PVS and PVS2. The Replication Status dialog box shows an orange warning signal with a message.
Click on the Exhibit button to view the dialog box.
1Y0-201 dumps
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. The SOAP service is NOT running on the PVS server.
B. The server time is NOT configured correctly on the PVS and PVS2 servers.
C. The Provisioning Services server does NOT have access to one of the vDisk locations.
D. The network card configurations on the PVS server do NOT match the configurations on the PVS2 server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure email alerts on performance threshold events for a XenServer resource pool. Which three types of XenServer alerts could the administrator set in XenCenter? (Choose three.)
A. Disk usage
B. CPU usage
C. Memory usage
D. Network usage
E. Storage I/O usage
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator discovers that some user profiles have grown to over 500 MB in size. The administrator wants to reduce the size of user profiles. 1Y0-201 dumps
Which method could the administrator use to reduce the size of future user profiles without incurring data loss?
A. Enable file exclusions in a Citrix policy.
B. Disable folder redirection Application Data.
C. Enable profile streaming for the user profile.
D. Disable’deletelocally cachedprofilesonlogoff’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers. Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?
A. TFTP
B. BootP
C. Stream
D. Two-Stage Boot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator is given the task of creating a new maintenance version for a vDisk from an existing maintenance disk.
Which task does the administrator need to complete before the new maintenance version of the vDisk is created?
A. Merge the vDisk.
B. Promote the version.
C. Release vDisk locks.
D. Unassign the vDisk from selected devices.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator is in the process of upgrading the edition of XenDesktop to Enterprise. After uploading the new license file to the License Server, what must the administrator do to continue the upgrade?
A. Run lmadmin.exe
B. Restart the Delivery Controller
C. Refresh the License Server Administration Console
D. Change the edition of the license used within Citrix Studio
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
How could a Citrix Administrator add a XenApp 6.5 deployment to a XenDesktop 7.6 deployment so that both are manageable from within Citrix Director? 1Y0-201 dumps
A. Execute the DirectorConfig.exe tool on the Citrix Director server.
B. Install a dedicated Citrix Director server for the XenApp 6.5 environment.
C. Add the XenApp 6.5 Data Collector to the registry on the Citrix Director server.
D. Add the name of the XenApp 6.5 Data Collector to service.AutoDiscoveryAddress in IIS.
Correct Answer: A

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/1Y0-201.html dumps exam questions and answers update free try, latest Citrix CCA-V 1Y0-201 dumps exam training resources free shared.

High quality Citrix CCA-V 1Y0-201 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/qsW_xsCRxos

Latest lead4pass 210-065 dumps Cisco pdf materials and vce youtube update demo. Prepare for Cisco 210-065 exam with best Cisco CCNA Collaboration 210-065 dumps exam practice questions and answers free update from lead4pass. “Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0” is the name of Cisco CCNA Collaboration lead4pass https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco CCNA Collaboration lead4pass 210-065 dumps pdf study guides and training resources update free try, pass Cisco 210-065 exam test easily.

Latest Lead4pass 210-065 dumps pdf materials free download from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRODRqVmVBYWxuc0k

Latest Lead4pass 210-060 dumps pdf materials free download from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHJTTV9NMjQ0dmc

Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 281 Q&As
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco TelePresence MX300 G2, what is the minimum bandwidth for 1080p30?
A. 768 kbps
B. 1152 kbps
C. 1472 kbps
D. 1873 kbps
E. 2560 kbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

Read more: https://www.lead4pass.com/210-065.html dumps real exam practice questions and answers try, lead4pass 210-065 dumps latest Cisco pdf training materials and study guides free update.

High quality Lead4pass 210-065 dumps vce youtube free try: https://youtu.be/rWZzQKxnlJQ

High Quality Network Appliance NCDA NS0-157 dumps pdf training resources and vce youtube free demo. “NetApp Certified Data Administrator, Clustered Data ONTAP” is the name of Network Appliance NS0-157 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Network Appliance exam. Lead4pass Network Appliance https://www.lead4pass.com/NS0-157.html dumps exam questions and answers are updated (302 Q&As) are verified by experts. Get the best Network Appliance NCDA NS0-157 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides free try, pass Network Appliance NS0-157 exam test easily.

High Quality Network Appliance NS0-157 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSzlqVmpjNV9YUzA

High Quality Apple 9L0-012 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSzFqWXpfX2lQVms

Vendor: Network Appliance
Certifications: NCDA
Exam Name: NetApp Certified Data Administrator, Clustered Data ONTAP
Exam Code: NS0-157
Total Questions: 302 Q&As
NS0-157 dumps
QUESTION 1
The VLDB is out-of-quorum on the node serving as the master of the VLDB ring. Which four statements are true? (Choose four.)
A. A new VLDB ring master is elected.
B. Clients can write to volumes on that node.
C. Volumes cannot be moved to or from that node.
D. Clients can read from volumes hosted on that node.
E. New volumes can be created on aggregates hosted on that node.
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 2
What are the characteristics of Snapmirror? (choose three)
A. Provides data protection for disaster recovery
B. If the source FlexVol volume is lost, clients can restore data from the secondary to primary storage
C. Can asynchronously copy the source FlexVol volume to a disaster recovery replica
D. If the source FlexVol volume is lost or destroyed, clients can connect to the mirror image of the source data
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 3
For Vserver-aware NDMP backups, the ______________ must be enabled with cluster- aware backup extensions.
A. vServer management LIF
B. DMA server
C. Data LIF
D. Node management LIF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Fpolicy supports which of the following protocols? NS0-157 dumps (choose 6)
A. SMB 1.0
B. iSCSI
C. SMB 2.0
D. SMB 2.1
E. FC
F. SMB 3.0
G. NFS v3
H. NFS v4.0
Correct Answer: ACDFGH

QUESTION 5
New systems are shipped with the root volume in a 64-bit aggregate starting with which Data ONTAP release?
A. 8.0.0
B. 8.0.1
C. 8.0.2
D. 8.1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
With clustered Data ONTAP 8.2 or later, which SAN component will no longer be supported?
A. Windows Server 2012
B. vSphere 5.1
C. Veritas DMP
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 6.2
E. AIX 7.1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
In Data ONTAP 8.1.1 Cluster-Mode, what is the maximum node size for SAN protocols? (Choose three)
A. 24 nodes
B. 12 nodes
C. 8 nodes
D. 6 nodes
E. 4 nodes
F. 2 nodes
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 8
Which LIF is associated with the admin vserver?
A. Admin LIF
B. Data LIF
C. Cluster management LIF
D. Cluster LIF
E. Node management LIF
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
How many cluster ports does each node have by default?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
On wich component the QoS can be applied? NS0-157 dumps (Choose Two)
A. vserver
B. node
C. volume
D. qtree
E. aggregate
F. LUN
G. igroup
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 11
Which two SMB versions does Data ONTAP Cluster-Mode support? (Choose Two)
A. SMB 1.0
B. SMB 2.0
C. SMB 3.0
D. SMB 4.0
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
Which two now feature are available in Data ONTAP 8.1.1 C-Mode? (Choose two)
A. Flash pool
B. SSD Support
C. Infinite volume
D. Infiniband
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
Within clustered Data ONTAP 8.2 or later, which two functionalities are supported with an external asynchronous FPolicy server? (Choose two)
A. Audit logging
B. Compression and decompression services
C. Encryption and decryption services
D. File Access
E. Hierarchical storage management
Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://www.lead4pass.com/NS0-157.html dumps practice questions and answers update free try, Latest Network Appliance NS0-157 dumps pdf training materials free download.

Watch the video to learn more: https://youtu.be/5oAqRO4JsjA

Lead4pass Promo Code-10% off FIRST Buy

Lead4pass Promo Code
Lead4pass Promo Code is:”lead4pass“in this following link https://www.lead4pass.com/cart/view  as shown in  picture.
Lead4pass Promo Code

  • We provide you 100% money back guarantee

We guarantee your success at your first attempt with our product. If you do not pass the exam at your first try with lead4pass.com materials, we will give you a full refund.

  • We provide you 7*24 assistant

We provide you with 7*24 customer service to assistant. You can contact us when you need help with our study materials or any problems about the IT certification exams. We are ready to help you at any time.

  • lead4pass.com can be your trustworthy source for various IT certifications, because we have the following advantages:

1. All the study materials in lead4pass.com are compiled by experienced IT professional and experts who are familiar with latest exam and testing center for years. So our products could cover 100% of the knowledge points and ensure good results for every customer.
2. lead4pass.com continues to update the dumps in accord with real exams, which is to ensure the study material will cover more than 95% of the real exam.
3. Money back guarantee! Our complete coverage of knowledge points will help most of the candidates pass the exams easily, but in case you fail on the first try of your exam with our study material, we will give you a full refund on your purchase. Our only aim is to assist you to pass the exam.
4. Service first, customer first! lead4pass.com will always accompany you during your preparation of the exams, so if any professional problems puzzle you, just contact our experts any time. Good luck! lead4pass.com wishes good results for every candidate on first attempt, but if you fail to pass it, you can always rely upon us.

• 6000+ Questions and Answers
• 6000+ Free demo downloads available
• 50+ Preparation Labs
• 20+ Representatives Providing 24/7 Support
• Website Information:https://www.lead4pass.com/about-us.html

Lead4pass offers latest Oracle Database 1Z0-062 dumps exam questions and answers free try. High quality Oracle Database 1Z0-062 dumps pdf files and dumps vce youtube update free demo. https://www.lead4pass.com/1Z0-062.html dumps exam practice materials. Get the best Oracle Database 1Z0-062 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download, pass Oracle 1Z0-062 exam test easily at the first time.

Latest Oracle 1Z0-062 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRN3hrOHpMSjduUEk

Latest Oracle 1Z0-051 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRTGN1TmVCTngxX1U

Vendor: Oracle
Certifications: Oracle Database
Exam Name: Oracle Database 12c: Installation and Administration
Exam Code: 1Z0-062
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
1Z0-062 dumps
QUESTION 1
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing pluggable database (PDBs), you granted the CREATE TABLE privilege to the common user C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs. You execute the following command from the root container:SQL > REVOKE create table FROM C # # A_ADMIN;
What is the result?
A. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root only.
B. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=ALL clause is not used.
C. It excludes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in root and all PDBs.
D. It fails and reports an error because the CONTAINER=CURRENT clause is not used.
E. It executes successfully and the CREATE TABLE privilege is revoked from C # # A_ADMIN in all PDBs.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?
A. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
B. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
C. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
D. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
E. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 3
In your Database, the TBS PERCENT USED parameter is set to 60 and the TBS PERCENT FREE parameter is set to 20.
Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement? 1Z0-062 dumps
A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only
C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
D. Setting the target tablespace offline
E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds TBS PERCENT USED
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Identify two situations in which the alert log file is updated.
A. Running a query on a table returns ORA-600: Internal Error.
B. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-01722: invalid number.
C. Creating a table returns ORA-00955: name us already in used by an existing objects.
D. Inserting a value into a table returns ORA-00001: unique constraint (SYS.OK_TECHP) violated.
E. Rebuilding an index using ALTER INDEX . . . REBUILD fails with an ORA-01578:
ORACLE data block corrupted (file # 14, block # 50) error.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
You are connected to a pluggable database (PDB) as a common user with DBA privileges.
The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is PDB_MODIFIABLE. You execute the following:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET STATISTICS_LEVEL = ALL SID = `*’ SCOPE = SPFILE;
Which is true about the result of this command?
A. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever this PDB is re-opened.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to ALL whenever any PDB is reopened.
C. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to all whenever the multitenant container database (CDB) is restarted.
D. Nothing happens; because there is no SPFILE for each PDB, the statement is ignored.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
In order to exploit some new storage tiers that have been provisioned by a storage administrator, the partitions of a large heap table must be moved to other tablespaces in your Oracle 12c database?
Both local and global partitioned B-tree Indexes are defined on the table.
A high volume of transactions access the table during the day and a medium volume of transactions access it at night and during weekends.
Minimal disrupt ion to availability is required.
Which three statements are true about this requirement?
A. The partitions can be moved online to new tablespaces.
B. Global indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
C. The partitions can be compressed in the same tablespaces.
D. The partitions can be compressed in the new tablespaces.
E. Local indexes must be rebuilt manually after moving the partitions.
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
In your multitenant container database (CDB) containing same pluggable databases (PDBs), you execute the following commands in the root container:
1Z0-062 dumps
Which two statements are true? 1Z0-062 dumps
A. The C # # ROLE1 role is created in the root database and all the PDBs.
B. The C # # ROLE1 role is created only in the root database because the container clause is not used.
C. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user only in the root database.
D. Privileges are granted to the C##A_ADMIN user in the root database and all PDBs.
E. The statement for granting a role to a user fails because the CONTAINER clause is not used.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are true concerning the multitenant architecture?
A. Each pluggable database (PDB) has its own set of background processes.
B. A PDB can have a private temp tablespace.
C. PDBs can share the sysaux tablespace.
D. Log switches occur only at the multitenant container database (CDB) level.
E. Different PDBs can have different default block sizes.
F. PDBs share a common system tablespace.
G. Instance recovery is always performed at the CDB level.
Correct Answer: BDG

QUESTION 9
You notice that the elapsed time for an important database scheduler Job is unacceptably long.
The job belongs to a scheduler job class and window.
Which two actions would reduce the job’s elapsed time?
A. Increasing the priority of the job class to which the job belongs
B. Increasing the job’s relative priority within the Job class to which it belongs
C. Increasing the resource allocation for the consumer group mapped to the scheduler job’s job class within the plan mapped to the scheduler window
D. Moving the job to an existing higher priority scheduler window with the same schedule and duration
E. Increasing the value of the JOB_QUEUE_PROCESSES parameter
F. Increasing the priority of the scheduler window to which the job belongs
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
You executed the following command to create a password file in the database server:
$ orapwd file = orapworcl entries = 5 ignorecase=N
Which statement describes the purpose of the above password file?
A. It records usernames and passwords of users when granted the DBA role
B. It contains usernames and passwords of users for whom auditing is enabled
C. It is used by Oracle to authenticate users for remote database administrator
D. It records usernames and passwords of all users when they are added to OSDBA or OSOPERoperating groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Your database is open and the LISTENER listener running. You stopped the wrong listener LISTENER by issuing the following command:
1snrctl > STOP
What happens to the sessions that are presently connected to the database Instance?
A. They are able to perform only queries.
B. They are not affected and continue to function normally.
C. They are terminated and the active transactions are rolled back.
D. They are not allowed to perform any operations until the listener LISTENER is started.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You execute the following commands to audit database activities:
SQL > ALTER SYSTEM SET AUDIT_TRIAL=DB, EXTENDED SCOPE=SPFILE; SQL > AUDIT SELECT TABLE, INSERT TABLE, DELETE TABLE BY JOHN By SESSION WHENEVER SUCCESSFUL; 1Z0-062 dumps
Which statement is true about the audit record that generated when auditing after instance restarts?
A. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command on a table, and contains the SQL text for the SQL Statements.
B. One audit record is created for every successful execution of a SELECT, INSERT OR DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
C. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command, and contains the execution plan for the SQL statements.
D. One audit record is created for the whole session if JOHN successfully executes a select command, and contains the SQL text and bind variables used.
E. One audit record is created for the whole session if john successfully executes a SELECT, INSERT, or DELETE command on a table, and contains the execution plan, SQL text, and bind variables used.
Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.lead4pass.com/1Z0-062.html dumps exam practice materials free update.

Watch the video to learn more: https://youtu.be/VGwOEctjCkQ