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QUESTION 1
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 pdf
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)? 300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up 300-135 dumps
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 dumps
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255
command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 pdf
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
200-155
Which three EIGRP routes will be present in the router R4’s routing table? (Choose three.) 200-155
A. 172.16.1.0/24
B. 10.1.10.0/30
C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 10.1.11.0/30
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 192.168.1.0/24
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:
interface fastethernet 0/4            200-155
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)  200-155
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator for an enterprise organization must create and deploy a web application in the private cloud of the organization. The environment consists of two web servers: one application server and one database server. The application stack should be available only to Internet traffic while keeping the database and application server completely secure.
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option lists the different container types available in Cisco UCS Director under Menu Bar > Solutions > VACS Container?
A. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 3 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
B. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 2 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
C. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
D. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
Answer: A
210-250
QUESTION 3                         210-250
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog?
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which option describes what end user portal access allows?
A. ordering of server and / or application environments based on preconfigured resources available to users access
B. deployment of templates and OVA files
C. sharing files with other portal users
D. registering Physical Compute resources to the environment
Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Where are the main fault logs for root cause analysis located?
A. on your local computer via an SSH session
B. on the server where the application is installed
C. on the database server
D. on the switch that connects the database and application server
Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Due to disk space constraints, the cloud administrator for a cloud service provider wants to see how much storage a particular organization is using for snapshots. Which report option in Cisco UCS Director provides that data? 210-250
A. Billing Report for a Customer
B. VM Activity Report by Group
C. Virtual Infrastructure and Asset Report
D. Storage Inventory Report for a Group
Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? 210-250
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Active Discovery Phase–In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.
PPP Session Phase–In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-175
Which one statement is true?          300-175
A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
You can filter what individual routes are sent (out) or received (in) to any interface within your EIGRP configuration.
One example is noted above. If you filter outbound, the next neighbor(s) will not know about anything except the 172.16.0.0/16 route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream. If you filter inbound, YOU won’t know about the route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream.

QUESTION 3
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the 300-175 autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command.

QUESTION 5
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped):
The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall.
The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on. · The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received.
The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port.

QUESTION 6
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the 300-175 network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.

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QUESTION 1
Your company has two cloud services named CS01 and CS02. You create a virtual machine (VM) in CS02 named Accounts.
You need to ensure that users in CS01 can access the Accounts VM by using port 8080.
What should you do?
A. Create a firewall rule.
B. Configure load balancing.
C. Configure port redirection.
D. Configure port forwarding.
E. Create an end point.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You manage an application deployed to virtual machines (VMs) on an Azure virtual network named corpVnet1.
You plan to hire several remote employees who will need access to the application on corpVnet1.
You need to ensure that new employees can access corpVnet1. You want to achieve this goal by using the most cost effective solution.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Create a VPN subnet.
B. Enable point-to-point connectivity for corpVnet1.
C. Enable point-to-site connectivity for corpVnet1.
D. Create a gateway subnet.
E. Enable site-to-site connectivity for corpVnet1.
F. Convert corpVnet1 to a regional virtual network.
Correct Answer: AC
70-533
QUESTION 3             70-533
Your company network includes an On-Premises Windows Active Directory (AD) that has a DNS domain named contoso. local and an email domain named contoso. com. You plan to migrate from On-Premises Exchange to Office 365.
You configure DirSync and set all Azure Active Directory {Azure AD) usernames as %username [email protected] com
You need to ensure that each user is able to log on by using the email domain as the username.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Verify the email domain in Azure AD domains.
B. Run the Set-MsolUserPnncipalName -UserPnncipalName [email protected] ntoso. onmicrosoft. com – NewUserPrincipalName %usemame [email protected] com Power Shell cmdlet.
C. Edit the ProxyAddress attribute on the On-Premises Windows AD user account.
D. Verify the Windows AD DNS domain in Azure AD domains.
E. Update the On-Premises Windows AD user account UPN to match the email address.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
You plan to use Password Sync on your DirSync Server with Azure Active Directory {Azure AD) on your company network. You configure the DirSync server and complete an initial synchronization of the users.
Several remote users are unable to log in to Office 365. You discover multiple event log entries for “Event ID 611 Password synchronization failed for domain.”
You need to resolve the password synchronization issue.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Restart Azure AD Sync Service.
B. Run the Set-FullPasswordSync Power Shell cmdlet.
C. Force a manual synchronization on the DirSync server.
D. Add the DirSync service account to the Schema Admins domain group.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You administer a Microsoft Azure SQL Database database in the US Central region named contosodb.
Contosodb runs on a Standard tier within the SI performance level. You have multiple business-critical applications that use contosodb.
You need to ensure that you can bring contosodb back online in the event of a natural disaster in the US Central region. You want to achieve this goal with the least amount of downtime.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Upgrade to S2 performance level.
B. Use active geo-replication.
C. Use automated Export.
D. Upgrade to Premium tier.
E. Use point in time restore.
F. Downgrade to Basic tier.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
You manage a set of virtual machines (VMs) deployed to the cloud service named fabrikamVM.
You configure auto scaling according to the following parameters:
With an instance range of two to six instances
To maintain CPU usage between 70 and 80 percent
To scale up one instance at a time
With a scale up wait time of 30 minutes
To scale down one instance at a time
With a scale down wait time of 30 minutes
You discover the following usage pattern of a specific application:
The application peaks very quickly, and the peak lasts for several hours.
CPU usage stays above 90 percent for the first 1 to 1.5 hours after usage increases.
After 1.5 hours, the CPU usage falls to about 75 percent until application usage begins to decline.
You need to modify the auto scaling configuration to scale up faster when usage peaks.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
A. Decrease the scale down wait time.
B. Decrease the scale up wait time.
C. Increase the number of scale up instances.
D. Increase the scale up wait time.
E. Increase the maximum number of instances.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
You manage an Azure subscription with virtual machines (VMs) that are running in Standard mode.
You need to reduce the storage costs associated with the VMs.
What should you do?
A. Locate and remove orphaned disks.
B. Add the VMs to an affinity group.
C. Change VMs to the Basic tier.
D. Delete the VHD container.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You manage a cloud service on two instances. The service name is Service1 and the role name is ServiceRole1.
Service1 has performance issues during heavy traffic periods.
You need to increase the existing deployment of Service1 to three instances.
Which Power Shell cmdlet should you use?
A. PS C:\>Set-AzureService -ServiceName “Service1” -Label “ServiceRole1′ -Description “Instance count=3”
B. PS C:\>Set-AzureRole -ServiceName “Service1” -Slot “Production” -RoleName “ServiceRole1″ -Count 3
C. PS C:\>Add-AzureWebRole -Name ‘ServiceRole1” -Instances 3
D. PS C:\> $instancecount = New-Object Hashtable$settings[‘INSTANCECOUNT=3] PS C:\> SetAzureWebsite -AppSettings $instancecount ServiceRole1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You manage a cloud service that has a web role named fabWeb. You create a virtual network named fabVNet that has two subnets defined as Web and Apps.
You need to be able to deploy fabWeb into the Web subnet.
What should you do?
A. Modify the service definition (csdef) for the cloud service.
B. Run the Set-AzureSubnet PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Set-AzureVNetConfig PowerShell cmdlet.
D. Modify the network configuration file.
E. Modify the service configuration (cscfg) for the fabWeb web role.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your company is launching a public website that allows users to stream videos.You upload multiple video files to an Azure storage container.
You need to give anonymous users read access to all of the video files in the storage container.
What should you do?
A. Edit each blob’s metadata and set the access policy to Public Blob.
B. Edit the container metadata and set the access policy to Public Container.
C. Move the files into a container sub-directory and set the directory access level to Public Blob.
D. Edit the container metadata and set the access policy to Public Blob.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF
300-206
QUESTION 3                                    300-206
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet traceC. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices. 300-206
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

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Question No : 1
The network administrator receives complaints of slow wireless network performance and performs a sniffer trace of the wireless network in preparation for migration to 802.11n. The sample capture shows frames that contains AP beacons with NonERP_Present bit set to 1 and frames with RTS/CTS.
Which two conclusions can be interpreted from these frames? (Choose two.)
A. The network is performing slowly because 802.11n clients are already mixed with 802.11g clients.
B. The network is performing slowly because 802.11b clients still exist in the network.
C. The network is performing slowly because a wireless client is incorrectly configured, which results in RF interference.
D. Possible 802.11b wireless clients are located only in the AP cell radius where the sniffer capture was performed.
E. Possible 802.11b wireless clients could be located anywhere in the wireless network.
Answer: B,E

Question No : 2
When using the CLI command eping, configured for auto-anchor mobility wireless guest access, which type of packet is tested?
A. data packets
B. mobility unencrypted packets
C. mobility encrypted packets
D. SNMP control packets
E. NTP control packets
Answer: A

Question No : 3
Which two principles must be considered when deploying a wireless network through a wooded area? (Choose two.)
A. absorption
B. reflection
C. diffraction
D. scattering
E. refraction
Answer: A,D

Question No : 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-355
A customer has enabled the primary DNS server to return the correct controller IP address in response to a CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain request coming from 200-355 new access points associating to the wireless network. The access points seem to still be receiving the wrong IP address and cannot associate to the primary controller.
Why are the access points receiving the wrong IP information?
A. The DHCP option 43 has an incorrect controller IP address configured.
B. The DNS server must be configured to respond to CISCO-LWAPPCONTROLLER.localdomain request.
C. The controller and wireless action point need to be Layer 2 adjacent.
D. The controller must be configured for DHCP option 15 request.
Answer: A

Question No : 5
An engineer has been asked to upgrade the FUS on the Wireless LAN controller. How can they monitor the status of the upgrade?
A. WLC GUI
B. WLC CLI
C. WLC Console
D. WLC Management in Prime Infrastructure
Answer: C

Question No : 6
Which three items do you need to establish a wireless connection to an enterprise wireless network? (Choose three.)
A. SSID name
B. RF channel
C. RF signal
D. 802.1X/EAP credentials
E. pre-shared key
F. web page
G. WPA/WPA2 settings
Answer: A,C,D

Question No : 7
Which statement about customization of a web page that is used on a WLC to authorize guest users is true?
A. The administrator can use either a modified internal login page or the customized web page.
B. The administrator can use only the internal login page, and only the organization logo can be changed.
C. The administrator can use only the internal login page with a customized logo, headline, and message.
D. The administrator can use only the customized web page that is uploaded to a WLC.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which type of management tasks can be completed on a Cisco WLC remotely from a wireless client?
A. All management and configuration tasks can be performed from a wireless client except for using debug commands.
B. In the default configuration, no management or configuration is possible through the GUI or CLI on the Cisco WLC.
C. The default configuration of the Cisco WLC allows only CLI access and then only the use of show commands, so no configuration is possible.
D. All management and configuration tasks, except uploads from and downloads to the Cisco WLC, are permitted.
Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An access switch has been configured with an EtherChannel port. After configuring SPAN to monitor this port, the network administrator notices that not all traffic is being replicated to the management server. What is a cause for this issue?
A. VLAN filters are required to ensure traffic mirrors effectively.
B. SPAN encapsulation replication must be enabled to capture EtherChannel destination traffic.
C. The port channel can be used as a SPAN source, but not a destination.
D. RSPAN must be used to capture EtherChannel bidirectional traffic.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
A source port or EtherChannel is a port or EtherChannel monitored for traffic analysis. You can configure both Layer 2 and Layer 3 ports and EtherChannels as SPAN sources. SPAN can monitor one or more source ports or EtherChannels in a single SPAN session. You can configure ports or EtherChannels in any VLAN as SPAN sources. Trunk ports or EtherChannels can be configured as sources and mixed with nontrunk sources. A port-channel interface (an EtherChannel) can be a SPAN source, but not a destination.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115
What is the result of the configuration?
A. The EtherChannels would not form because the load-balancing method must match on the devices.
B. The EtherChannels would form and function properly even though the load-balancing and EtherChannel modes do not match.
C. The EtherChannels would form, but network loops would occur because the load-balancing methods do not match.
D. The EtherChannels would form and both devices would use the dst-ip load-balancing method because Switch1 is configured with EtherChannel mode active.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
An etherchannel will form if one end is active and the 300-115 other is passive. The table below sum- marizes the results for LACP channel establishment based on the configuration of each side of a link:
LACP Channel Establishment
S1 S2 Established?
On On Yes
Active/Passive Active Yes
On/Active/Passive Not Configured No
On Active No
Passive/On Passive No
Load balancing can only be configured globally. As a result, all channels (manually configured, PagP, or LACP) use the same load-balancing. This is true for the switch globally, although each switch involved in the etherchannel can have non matching parameters for load balancing.

QUESTION 3
A network engineer tries to configure storm control on an EtherChannel bundle. What is the result of the configuration?
A. The storm control settings will appear on the EtherChannel, but not on the associated physical ports.
B. The configuration will be rejected because storm control is not supported for EtherChannel.
C. The storm control configuration will be accepted, but will only be present on the physical interfaces.
D. The settings will be applied to the EtherChannel bundle and all associated physical interfaces.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
After you configure 300-115 an EtherChannel, any configuration that you apply to the port-channel interface affects the EtherChannel; any configuration that you apply to the physical interfaces affects only the interface where you apply the configuration. Storm Control is an exception to this rule. For example, you cannot configure Storm Control on some of the members of an EtherChannel; Storm Control must be configured on all or none of the ports. If you configure Storm Control on only some of the ports, those ports will be dropped from the EtherChannel interface (put in suspended state). Therefore, you should configure Storm Control at the EtherChannel Interface level, and not at the physical interface level.

QUESTION 4
What is the function of NSF?
A. forward traffic simultaneously using both supervisors
B. forward traffic based on Cisco Express Forwarding
C. provide automatic failover to back up supervisor in VSS mode
D. provide nonstop forwarding in the event of failure of one of the member supervisors
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
VSS is network system virtualization technology that pools multiple Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches into one virtual switch, increasing operational efficiency, boosting nonstop communications, and scaling system bandwidth capacity to 1.4 Tbps. Switches would operate as a single logical virtual switch called a virtual switching system 1440 (VSS1440). VSS formed by two Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches with the Virtual Switching Supervisor 720-10GE. In a VSS, the data plane and switch fabric with capacity of 720 Gbps of supervisor engine in each chassis are active at the same time on both chassis, combining for an active 1400-Gbps switching capacity per VSS. Only one of the virtual switch members has the active control plane. Both chassis are kept in sync with the 300-115 inter-chassis Stateful Switchover (SSO) mechanism along with Nonstop Forwarding (NSF) to provide nonstop communication even in the event of failure of one of the member supervisor engines or chassis.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: Cisco CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)
Exam Code: 400-251
Total Questions: 452 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 15, 2017
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QUESTION 11
WLAN configuration sets are managed in an environment using BlackBerry Manager. At which level in BlackBerry Manager are WLAN configurations created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. Group
C. User
D. Device
E. Domain
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
The software configuration status information for a BlackBerry device user includes:
Configuration Status: OK System Status: Downgrade Required Application Status: Upgrade Required
What does this indicate? (Choose one.)
A. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is newer and third-party software that is older than what is specified in the software configuration.
B. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is older and third-party software that is newer than what is specified in the software configuration.
C. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, newer BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is older than what it needs to be.
D. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, older BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is newer than what it needs to be.
E. On the computer hosting the applications, the software configuration needs to be re-indexed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Using BlackBerry Manager, which status indicates that a BlackBerry device user has been successfully activated? (Choose one.)
A. RUNNING
B. ACTIVATED
C. INITIALIZING
D. **BES_NAME(RUNNING)
E. **INITIALIZING
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A system administrator is unable to assign an IT policy to a BlackBerry device user account or to a group. To resolve this problem, which role must be assigned to the system administrator? (Choose one.)
A. Administrator
B. Senior Help Desk Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Audit Administrator
E. Security Audit Administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which BlackBerry Resource Kit tool allows a system administrator to differentiate between hung and busy worker threads? (Choose one.)
A. MessageFlow
B. Pending
C. OutOfCoverage
D. NoResponse
E. AvailIndex
Correct Answer: D

400-251 dumps QUESTION 16
During the wireless enterprise activation process, the BlackBerry device stops responding and
displays the following error message:
Waiting for Services
Which two factors could delay the response of the enterprise activation process? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device user is in an area with sporadic wireless network coverage.
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is unable to connect to the BlackBerry Configuration Database.
C. The BlackBerry device requires a security wipe prior to the enterprise activation.
D. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the database.
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the user mailbox.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
The system administrator installed the BlackBerry Enterprise Server with BlackBerry MDS Integration Service. Which two interfaces are available to administer the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Manager
B. BlackBerry MDS Studio
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration tool
D. BlackBerry MDS Integration tool
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
A company must move the BlackBerry Configuration Database from the local BlackBerry Enterprise Server using MSDE to a new Microsoft SQL Server to improve the performance of the database. What is the best method for moving the database? (Choose one.)
A. Install the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software on the new computer to create the database.
B. Back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
C. Run Createdb to create the database on the new Microsoft SQL Server and restore the backup of the old database to the new database.
D. Run BlackBerry Backup to back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
E. Run Createdb-export to export the database information and then run Createdb-import to restore the database to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an existing application in a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the existing application from the BlackBerry device.
B. Copy and overwrite the existing application into the Shared folder.
C. Index the applications listed in the Applications directory.
D. Refresh the applications listed in the Applications directory.
E. Replace the old application with the new application.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
Once the Enterprise Service Policy has been enabled, which of the following two things can be controlled by a system administrator? (Choose two.)
A. The range of PIN numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device models that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The range of IMEI numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The specific time frame in which the BlackBerry device users can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. A specific user service provider that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
A system administrator removed a BlackBerry device user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and tried to add the user back using the BlackBerry Manager. The system administrator was unable to add the user back to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server because they still resided in Users Pending Delete. What should the system administrator do to remove the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using BlackBerry Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to clear the user from the Users Pending Delete
B. Hard delete the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. Use the Purge User command under the Users Pending Delete tab.
D. Remove the user from Users Pending Delete using the BlackBerry Resource Kit.
E. Reload the user and try to delete the user again
Correct Answer: C

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Question No : 1
A Windows-based computer is infected with malware and is running too slowly to boot and run a malware scanner. Which of the following is the BEST way to run the malware scanner?
A. Kill all system processes
B. Enable the firewall
C. Boot from CD/USB
D. Disable the network connection
Answer: C

Explanation:
Antivirus companies frequently create boot discs you can use to scan and repair your computer. These tools can be burned to a CD or DVD or installed onto a USB drive. You can then SY0-401 restart your computer and boot from the removable media. A special antivirus environment will load where your computer can be scanned and repaired.
SY0-401
Incorrect Options:
A: Kill all system processes will stop system processes, and could have a negative effect on the system. It is not the BEST way to run the malware scanner
B: The basic purpose of a firewall is to isolate one network from another. It is not the BEST way to run the malware scanner.
D: Disabling the network connection will not allow for the BEST way to run the malware scanner.

Question No : 2
A company determines a need for additional protection from rogue devices plugging into physical ports around the building.
Which of the following provides the highest degree of protection SY0-401 from unauthorized wired network access?
A. Intrusion Prevention Systems
B. MAC filtering
C. Flood guards
D. 802.1x
Answer: D
Explanation:
IEEE 802.1x is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols and provides an authentication mechanism to wireless devices connecting to a LAN or WLAN.

Question No : 3
A malicious program modified entries in the SY0-401 LMHOSTS file of an infected system. Which of the following protocols would have been affected by this?
A. ICMP
B. BGP
C. NetBIOS
D. DNS
Answer: C

Explanation:
The LMHOSTS file provides a NetBIOS name resolution method that can be used for small networks that do not use a WINS server. NetBIOS has been adapted to run on top of TCP/IP, and is still extensively used for name resolution and registration in Windows-based environments.

Question No : 4
Multi-tenancy is a concept found in which of the following?
A. Full disk encryption
B. Removable media
C. Cloud computing
D. Data loss prevention
Answer: C

Explanation:
One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This “multitenant” nature means that SY0-401 workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

Question No : 5
An organization does not want the wireless network name to be easily discovered. Which of the following software features should be configured on the access points?
A. SSID broadcast
B. MAC filter
C. WPA2
D. Antenna placement
Answer: A
Explanation:
Numerous networks broadcast their name (known as an SSID broadcast) to reveal their presence.

Question No : 6
Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements?
A. Data loss prevention
B. Trusted platform module
C. Hard drive encryption
D. Cloud computing
Answer: D

Explanation:
One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This “multitenant” nature means that SY0-401 workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.

Question No : 7
Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model?
A. Packet Filter Firewall
B. Stateful Firewall
C. Proxy Firewall
D. Application Firewall
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.

Question No : 8
A network administrator needs to provide daily network usage reports on all layer 3 devices without compromising any data while gathering the information. Which of the following would be configured to provide these reports?
A. SNMP
B. SNMPv3
C. ICMP
D. SSH
Answer: B
Explanation:
Currently, SNMP is predominantly used for monitoring and performance management. SNMPv3 defines a secure version of SNMP and also facilitates remote configuration of the SY0-401 SNMP entities.

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