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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCIE
Exam Name: Cisco CCIE Security Written Exam (v5.0)
Exam Code: 400-251
Total Questions: 452 Q&As
Last Updated: Apr 15, 2017
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QUESTION 11
WLAN configuration sets are managed in an environment using BlackBerry Manager. At which level in BlackBerry Manager are WLAN configurations created? (Choose one.)
A. Server
B. Group
C. User
D. Device
E. Domain
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
The software configuration status information for a BlackBerry device user includes:
Configuration Status: OK System Status: Downgrade Required Application Status: Upgrade Required
What does this indicate? (Choose one.)
A. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is newer and third-party software that is older than what is specified in the software configuration.
B. The corresponding BlackBerry device is operating with BlackBerry Device Software that is older and third-party software that is newer than what is specified in the software configuration.
C. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, newer BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is older than what it needs to be.
D. On the computer hosting the applications for the software configuration, older BlackBerry Device Software is installed and the third-party software is newer than what it needs to be.
E. On the computer hosting the applications, the software configuration needs to be re-indexed.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Using BlackBerry Manager, which status indicates that a BlackBerry device user has been successfully activated? (Choose one.)
A. RUNNING
B. ACTIVATED
C. INITIALIZING
D. **BES_NAME(RUNNING)
E. **INITIALIZING
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A system administrator is unable to assign an IT policy to a BlackBerry device user account or to a group. To resolve this problem, which role must be assigned to the system administrator? (Choose one.)
A. Administrator
B. Senior Help Desk Administrator
C. Domain Administrator
D. Audit Administrator
E. Security Audit Administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which BlackBerry Resource Kit tool allows a system administrator to differentiate between hung and busy worker threads? (Choose one.)
A. MessageFlow
B. Pending
C. OutOfCoverage
D. NoResponse
E. AvailIndex
Correct Answer: D

400-251 dumps QUESTION 16
During the wireless enterprise activation process, the BlackBerry device stops responding and
displays the following error message:
Waiting for Services
Which two factors could delay the response of the enterprise activation process? (Choose two.)
A. The BlackBerry device user is in an area with sporadic wireless network coverage.
B. The BlackBerry Synchronization Service is unable to connect to the BlackBerry Configuration Database.
C. The BlackBerry device requires a security wipe prior to the enterprise activation.
D. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the database.
E. The BlackBerry Policy Service is unable to connect to the user mailbox.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
The system administrator installed the BlackBerry Enterprise Server with BlackBerry MDS Integration Service. Which two interfaces are available to administer the BlackBerry MDS Integration Service? (Choose two.)
A. BlackBerry Manager
B. BlackBerry MDS Studio
C. BlackBerry Server Configuration tool
D. BlackBerry MDS Integration tool
E. Microsoft Internet Explorer
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
A company must move the BlackBerry Configuration Database from the local BlackBerry Enterprise Server using MSDE to a new Microsoft SQL Server to improve the performance of the database. What is the best method for moving the database? (Choose one.)
A. Install the BlackBerry Enterprise Server software on the new computer to create the database.
B. Back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
C. Run Createdb to create the database on the new Microsoft SQL Server and restore the backup of the old database to the new database.
D. Run BlackBerry Backup to back up the database and restore it to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
E. Run Createdb-export to export the database information and then run Createdb-import to restore the database to the new Microsoft SQL Server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Which two actions must be taken to upgrade an existing application in a software configuration? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the existing application from the BlackBerry device.
B. Copy and overwrite the existing application into the Shared folder.
C. Index the applications listed in the Applications directory.
D. Refresh the applications listed in the Applications directory.
E. Replace the old application with the new application.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
Once the Enterprise Service Policy has been enabled, which of the following two things can be controlled by a system administrator? (Choose two.)
A. The range of PIN numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
B. The BlackBerry device models that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
C. The range of IMEI numbers that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
D. The specific time frame in which the BlackBerry device users can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
E. A specific user service provider that can be activated on the BlackBerry Enterprise Server
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
A system administrator removed a BlackBerry device user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server and tried to add the user back using the BlackBerry Manager. The system administrator was unable to add the user back to the BlackBerry Enterprise Server because they still resided in Users Pending Delete. What should the system administrator do to remove the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server using BlackBerry Manager? (Choose one.)
A. Restart the BlackBerry Enterprise Server to clear the user from the Users Pending Delete
B. Hard delete the user from the BlackBerry Enterprise Server.
C. Use the Purge User command under the Users Pending Delete tab.
D. Remove the user from Users Pending Delete using the BlackBerry Resource Kit.
E. Reload the user and try to delete the user again
Correct Answer: C

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Question No : 1
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B

Explanation:
RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the 200-105 exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge, RSTP operates at Layer 2.

Question No : 2
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105
At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Answer: C

Explanation:
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID2. A lower path cost to the Root3. A lower Sending Bridge ID4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Switch3 have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The 200-105 only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index). In this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because Fa0/12 is inferior to Fa0/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with Fa0/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the other port -> Port fa0/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role)

Question No : 3
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.
Answer: C

Explanation:
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST)
Introduction
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in the network. This means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another 200-105 switch can be the root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can optimize the network traffic.

Question No : 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Answer: A,B,F

Explanation:
The question says “no other configuration changes have been made” so we can understand these switches have the same bridge priority. SwitchC has lowest MAC address so, it will become root bridge and 2 of its ports (Fa0/1 & Fa0/2) will be designated ports (DP). Because SwitchC is the root bridge the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (Fa0/1) and SwitchD (Gi0/2) will be root ports (RP) -> B and F are correct.
SwitchB must have a root port so which port will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost.
In general, “cost” is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The 200-105 higher the bandwidth on a link, the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:
Link speed Cost SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must calculate the cost on interface Gi0/1 & Gi0/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated from the “cost to the root bridge” of each switch because a switch always advertises its cost to the root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the BPDU.
SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 4 (the cost value of 1Gbps link) and advertises this value (4) to SwitchB. SwitchB adds another 4 and earns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/1 port with a total cost of 8. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB learns that it can reach SwitchC via Gi0/2 with a total cost of 23 -> Switch B chooses Gi0/1 as its root port.

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so Fa0/2 of SwitchA will be designated port while Gi0/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/200-105-icnd2.html

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Question No : 1
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105
Mary is sending an instant message to Robert. The 100-105 message will be broken into a series of packets that will traverse all network devices. What addresses will populate these packets as they are forwarded from Router1 to Router2?
100-105
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Answer: B

Explanation:
The Source and Destination IP address is not going to change. Host 1 IP address will stay as being the source IP and the Host 2 IP address will stay the destination IP address.
Those two are not going to change.
For the MAC address it is going to change each time it goes from one hope to another. (Except switches… they don’t change anything)
Frame leaving HOST 1 is going to have a source MAC of Host 1 and a destination MAC of Router 1.
Router 1 is going to strip that info off and then will make the 100-105 source MAC address of Router1’s exiting interface, and making Router2’s interface as the destination MAC address.
Then the same will happen… Router2 is going to change the source/destination info to the source MAC being the Router2 interface that it is going out, and the destination will be Host2’s MAC address.

Question No : 2
A workstation has just resolved a browser URL to the IP address of a server. What protocol will the workstation now use to determine the destination MAC address to be placed into frames directed toward the server?
A. HTTP
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. RARP
E. ARP
Answer: E

Explanation:
The RARP protocol is used to translate hardware interface addresses to protocol addresses. The RARP message format is very similar to the ARP format. When the booting computer sends the broadcast ARP request, it places its own hardware address in both the sending and receiving fields in the 100-105 encapsulated ARP data packet. The RARP server will fill in the correct sending and receiving IP addresses in its response to the message. This way the booting computer will know its IP address when it gets the message from the RARP server.

Question No : 3
Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A. CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B. CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D. CDP is a network layer protocol.
E. CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F. CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B,C,E

Explanation:
CDP (Cisco Discovery Protocol) is a proprietary protocol designed by Cisco 100-105 to help administrators collect information about both locally attached and remote devices. By using CDP, you can gather hardware and protocol information about neighbor devices containing useful info for troubleshooting and documenting the network.

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QUESTION 1
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco 210-060 Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text LabelB. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060
When a call is placed from the Branch Router phone to the PSTN number of 914085551212, the 210-060 call is failing. What dial-peer is supposed to be used and why is the call failing? Select 2 (two)
A. dial-peer voice 910 pots
B. dial-peer voice 9 pots
C. dial-peer voice 9001 voip
D. destination pattern is incorrect
E. prefix is missing from the dial-peer
F. the port assignment is incorrect in the dial-peer
G. the port number is missing in the dial-peer
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page?
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A new user has successfully registered Cisco 210-060 Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems?
A. Show Connection Status
B. Report A Problem
C. Advanced Settings
D. About Jabber
E. Reset Jabber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Use the router console to view the configuration and answer the question.
210-060
Emergency calls from a Branch router phone is failing. From the router configuration information provided, why is this call failing?
A. The dial-peer port assignment is incorrect
B. the digit string prefix is missing
C. The destination pattern is incorrect
D. digit stripping needs to be performed
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two technologies comprise a Cisco 210-060 Presence deployment? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Presence Server
B. Cisco Unity Connection
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Active Directory
E. Cisco Unified Border Element
F. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which three network elements are crucial when deploying VoIP devices? (Choose three.)
A. Round-trip time
B. QoS markings
C. Bandwidth
D. Ethernet
E. Fibre
F. Token ring
Correct Answer: ABC

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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
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A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Active Discovery Phase–In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the 300-101 PPPoE layer is established.
PPP Session Phase–In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-101
Which one statement is true?
A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
You can filter what individual routes are sent (out) or received (in) to any interface within your EIGRP configuration.
One example is noted above. If you 300-101 filter outbound, the next neighbor(s) will not know about anything except the 172.16.0.0/16 route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream. If you filter inbound, YOU won’t know about the route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream.

QUESTION 3
A router with an interface that is configured with ipv6 address autoconfig also has a link-local address assigned. Which message is required to obtain a global unicast address when a router is present?
A. DHCPv6 request
B. router-advertisement
C. neighbor-solicitation
D. redirect
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Autoconfiguration is performed on multicast-enabled links only and begins when a multicast- enabled interface is enabled (during system startup or manually).
Nodes (both, hosts and routers) begin the process by generating a link-local address for the interface. It is formed by appending the interface identifier to wellknown link-local prefix FE80 :: 0. The interface identifier replaces the right-most zeroes of the link-local prefix. Before the link-local address can be assigned to the interface, the node performs the Duplicate Address Detection mechanism to see if any other node is using the 300-101 same link-local address on the link. It does this by sending a Neighbor Solicitation message with target address as the “tentative” address and destination address as the solicited-node multicast address corresponding to this tentative address. If a node responds with a Neighbor Advertisement message with tentative address as the target address, the address is a duplicate address and must not be used.

Hence, manual configuration is required.
Once the node verifies that its tentative address is unique on the link, it assigns that link-local address to the interface. At this stage, it has IP-connectivity to other neighbors on this link. The autoconfiguration on the routers stop at this stage, further tasks are performed only by the hosts. The routers will need manual configuration (or stateful configuration) to receive site-local or global addresses.

Read more: http://www.lead4pass.com/300-101.html The next phase involves obtaining Router Advertisements from routers if any routers are present on the link. If no routers are present, a stateful configuration is required. If routers are present, the Router Advertisements notify what sort of configurations the hosts need to do and the hosts receive a global unicast IPv6 address.

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/route2.html

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Question No : 1
Company X currently uses a Cisco Unified Communications Manager, which has been configured for IP desk phones and Jabber soft phones. Users report however that whenever they are out of the office, a VPN must be set up before their Jabber client can be used. The administrator for Company X has deployed a Collaboration Expressway server at the edge of the network in an attempt to remove the need for VPN when doing voice.
However, devices outside cannot register.
Which two additional steps are needed to complete this deployment? (Choose two.)
A. A SIP trunk has to be set up between the Expressway-C and Cisco UCM.
B. An additional interface must be enabled on the Cisco UCM and placed in the same subnet at the Expressway.
C. The customer firewall must be configured with any rule for the IP address of the external Jabber client.
D. The Expressway server needs a neighbor zone created that points to Cisco UCM.
E. Jabber cannot connect to Cisco UCM unless it is on the same network or a VPN is set up from outside.
Answer: A,D
300-075
Question No : 2
When you connect a Cisco VCS Control to Cisco 300-075 Unified Communications Manager by using a SIP trunk, which mechanism do you use to verify that the trunk has an active connection?
A. OPTIONS ping
B. DNS tracing
C. Continuous ping
D. Dynamic DNS
Answer: A

Question No : 3
Which module is the minimum PVDM3 module needed to support video transcoding?
A. PVDM3-32
B. PVDM3-64
C. PVDM3-128
D. PVDM3-192
Answer: C

Question No : 4
Which three items must you configure to enable SAF Call Control Discovery? (Choose three.)
A. a calling search space
B. hosted DN patterns
C. translation patterns
D. route patterns
E. the SIP or H.323 trunk
F. hosted DN groups
Answer: B,E,F

Question No : 5
An engineer is configuring Global Dial Plan Replication and wants to 300-075 prevent the local cluster from routing the Vice President number 5555555555 to the remote cluster. Which action accomplishes this task?
A. Create a block route pattern.
B. Create a block learned pattern.
C. Create a block transformation pattern.
D. Create a block translation pattern.
Answer: C

Question No : 6
How long is the default keepalive period for SRST in Cisco IOS?
A. 45 sec
B. 30 sec
C. 60 sec
D. 120 sec
Answer: B

Question No : 7
Which solution is needed to enable presence and extension mobility to branch office phones during a WAN failure?
A. SRST without MGCP fallback
B. SRST with VoIP dial peers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
C. SRST with MGCP fallback
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode
Answer: C

Question No : 8
Which three statements about configuring an encrypted trunk between Cisco 300-075 TelePresence Video Communication Server and Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? (Choose three.)
A. The root CA of the VCS server certificate must be loaded in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Incoming Transport Type set to TCP+UDP.
C. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager trunk configuration must have the destination port set to 5061.
D. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with Device Security Mode set to TLS.
E. A SIP trunk security profile must be configured with the X.509 Subject Name from the VCS certificate.
F. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have SIP authentication trust mode set to On.
G. The Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone configured in VCS must have TLS verify mode set to Off.
Answer: A,C,E

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Question No : 1
What is the benefit of understanding stakeholder interests?
A. Understanding stakeholder interest helps sales people present solutions in the right business or technical language and context.
B. Aligning the message to the audience requires an understanding of stakeholders’ audience goals and ensure a good business proposition.
C. Matching business needs to outcomes helps sales people present solutions in the right business or technical language and context.
D. Aligning business goals and technical goals ensure sales people present solutions in the right business or technical language and context.
Answer: A
810-403
Question No : 2
Which statement is true regarding 810-403 technical requirements?
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Answer: A

Question No : 3
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Answer: A,B,C,E

Question No : 4
Which resource can a sales person incorporate into the business outcome story?
A. Include a detailed business strategic plan
B. Describe the project definition.
C. Explain technology innovations.
D. Identify the customers’ care-abouts.
Answer: D

Question No : 5
Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to 810-403 specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Answer: C
810-403
Question No : 6
Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?
A. Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
B. Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
C. To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
D. Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.
Answer: C

Question No : 7
What are the phases of the Seven Elements framework?
A. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
B. Past, Present, Future.
C. Previous, Present, Posterior.
D. Before, In Between, After.
Answer: B

Question No : 8
Which option is the outcome when comparing the 810-403 current state of technology with the capabilities of emerging technologies?
A. Identify gaps for upgrading Cisco products.
B. Identify gaps that provideopportunities for new services and solutions.
C. Identify new cloud-based technologies.
D. Identify the new stakeholders.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the 200-310 nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit
200-310
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured.
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310
Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load 200-310 balancing at the same time?
A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 8
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only 200-310 flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

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Question No : 1
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
Answer: A

Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the 400-101 Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

Question No : 2
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D

Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network.
Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into 400-101 a single lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e. single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to 400-101 it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

Question No : 4
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B

Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams.

Question No : 5
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B

Explanation:
In order to understand how the 400-101 load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

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Question No : 1
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?
A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer.
B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics.
D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.
Answer: D
300-320
Question No : 2
Which practice is recommended when designing scalable OSPF networks?
A. Maximize the number of routers in an area.
B. Minimize the number of ABRs.
C. Minimize the number of areas supported by an ABR.
D. Maximize the number of router adjacencies.
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high 300-320 availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Answer: D
300-320
Question No : 4
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C. Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E. Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 5
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
Answer: B,C

Question No : 6
Which two design concerns must be addressed when 300-320 designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: A,F

Question No : 7
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?
A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer7
Answer: D

Question No : 8
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?
A. SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B. Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C. A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D. Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches
Answer: C

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