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QUESTION 1
Which TLS version(s) are supported by Webex Teams applications?
A. TLS versions 1.1 and 1.2 only
B. TLS version 1.2 only
C. Webex Teams does not support TLS
D. TLS version 1.0 and 1.1 only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement for Control Hub is valid?
A. available to customers with over 10000 paid subscriptions
B. only available to partners
C. free to customers with a paid subscription
D. Cisco internal tool only
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
What tools help Partners determine the best Cisco Collaboration Flex Plan for customers?
A. Salesforce and Sales Connect
B. App Hub and Integrations Playbook
C. the Flip 2 Flex Discovery Tool and Flip2Flex Portal
D. SWSS Help Desk and Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW)
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Which role within an organization has the privilege to see all messages?
A. Device Administrator
B. Site Administrator
C. Compliance officer role
D. any user
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 5
Which platform is Cisco Webex Calling based upon?
A. Broadcloud platform from the recent Cisco acquisition of Broadsoft
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager (CUCM)
C. Spark Calling platform
D. Business Edition 4000
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
What are two versions of Control Hub? (Choose two.)
A. Standard
B. Vision Insight
C. Platinum
D. Pro Pack
E. Silver
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 7
Webex team natively bring together which two capabilities? (Choose two.)
A. Data Center Reports
B. Meetings
C. Project Workspace
D. Network Routing
E. Messaging
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 8
Which key benefit of Webex Teams collaboration is valid?
A. Only the moderator of a space is able to use important meeting features
B. Replaces the need for a firewall appliance
C. Webex Teams does not support API\\’s or SDK\\’s
D. Integrates persistent context chats, file sharing, and whiteboarding
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Which company did Cisco partner with for a Webex Widget, which embeds messaging and meetings into the application
page?
A. SAP
B. PegaSystems
C. Ultra-Innovations International
D. Salesforce
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which two endpoints allow for whiteboarding and annotating on the screen? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Meeting Server 2000
B. Cisco IP Phone
C. DX 80
D. Cisco IP Conference Phone
E. Webex Board
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 11
Which statement about Webex Teams message encryption is valid?
A. Messages are encrypted using the AES-512-GCM cipher
B. Messages are encrypted using the AES-256-GCM cipher
C. Messages are encrypted using the AES-128-GCM cipher D. Messages are encrypted ONLY if they include data
classified as “confidential”
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which benefit does Cisco Commerce Workspace (CCW) provide for partners?
A. quote and transact orders for both traditional resale and subscription and annuity orders
B. quote and order resale product only
C. order only resale and subscription or annuity offers
D. ordering tool for Distributors only
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which statement about Cisco Software Support (SWSS) basic is valid?
A. SWSS is not an option with the Flex Plan.
B. SWSS is a separate add-on that must be purchased.
C. SWSS is only for data center customers.
D. SWSS is included in the Flex Plan subscription.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Customers are investing in uncompromised security of which 3 areas?
A. WAN, Cloud, Mobility
B. Cloud, Mobility and LAN
C. DC, Access and WAN
D. WAN, LAN, Cloud
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/software/one-software/one-overviewdeck.pdf

QUESTION 2
With Crisco ONE, what happens when a customer refreshes hardware?
A. The customer can refresh or go to the next tier of hardware and port or upgrade software at no additional charge
B. The customer must purchase entirely new software licenses
C. The customer can refresh hardware in the same tier and port software at no charge, or go to the next tier of hardware
and just pay the difference for their software
D. The customer can refresh hardware in the same her and port software at no charge but must purchase new licenses
for the next tier of hardware
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which phrase best describes the Cisco DX series?
A. a mobile endpoint solution designed to connect teams at any time, in any place
B. an all-in-one desktop collaboration device with an intuitive touchscreen
C. a flexible and scalable platform for video-conferencing rooms
D. a service solution that offers business messaging, calling, and persistent meeting spaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Cisco is positioning itself to recognize the greater value and superior differentiation and deliver better business outcomes for
its customers. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. They aim to price models in a more user-centric approach
B. They aim to provide flexible approaches to service offerings
C. They aim to provide more solution-based offerings
D. They aim to adopt personalized offerings to their customers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco mobile endpoint application provides instant messaging, voice and video calls, voice messaging, desktop
sharing, conferencing, and presence?
A. Cisco Expressway
B. Cisco Jabber
C. Cisco Webex Teams
D. Cisco TelePresence MX
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Cisco DNA Analytics and Assurance allow users to automate network performance management in all of the following
ways. Which is not true?
A. Simplify management
B. Gain network visibility
C. Save time, solve problems
D. Turn insights into
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following are features of the Cisco Firepower NGFW?
A. unified management
B. fully integrated
C. threat-focused
D. cloud-based
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco network administration product enables the creation and enforcement of security and access policies for a
company\\’s connected endpoint devices
A. Cisco Stealthwatch Enterprise
B. Cisco Platform Exchange Grid
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. Cisco Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Cisco TrustSec technology uses software-defined segmentation to simplify the provisioning of network access,
accelerate security operations, and consistently enforce policy anywhere in the network. Which of the following is not a
feature and benefit?
A. Apply policies across the network
B. Increased risks
C. Lower operational expenses
D. Streamline compliance
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/trustsec/solution-overview-c22-737173.html

QUESTION 10
Cisco has long been the world\\’s dominant supplier of computer networking products, systems, and services. Which of
the following is not included in Cisco\\’s current product lines?
A. LAN
B. Routers
C. Application Delivery Controllers
D. Switches
E. WAN
Correct Answer: C
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Application_delivery_controller

QUESTION 11
Security attacks are stealthier than ever. Pervasive protection is needed. When should it be implemented?
A. All of the above
B. After the attack
C. During the attack
D. Before the attack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following describes the NFV ENCS Virtualized branch?
A. a cloud-delivered overlay WAN architecture that facilitates digital and cloud transformation for enterprises
B. a hybrid platform that combines the benefits of a traditional router and a traditional server to offer the same
functionality with a smaller infrastructure footprint
C. a security application that mitigates vulnerabilities to offer branch and consumers protection where they need it most
D. a network device that mathematically verifies the entire network for the correctness
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
How is a business outcome defined?
A. a strategy that sets out sales targets and tactics for the business
B. a measurable result of an activity or process within the business
C. a process of estimating future sales
D. a plan that positions a company\\’s brand or product to gain a competitive advantage
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
You attempt to create several managed Microsoft SQL Server instances in an Azure environment and receive a
message that you must increase your Azure subscription limits. What should you do to increase the limits?
A. Create a service health alert
B. Upgrade your support plan
C. Modify an Azure policy
D. Create a new support request
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q2

 

QUESTION 3
You have 1,000 virtual machines hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center. You plan to migrate all the virtual
machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. You need to identify which expenditure model to use for the planned
Azure solution. Which expenditure model should you identify?
A. operational
B. elastic
C. capital
D. scalable
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/cloud-adoption/appendix/azure-scaffold

 

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
Your company plans to purchase Azure.
The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers
by phone or email.
You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement.
Solution: Recommend a Professional Direct support plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The Basic support plan does not have any technical support for engineers.
The Developer support plan has only technical support for engineers via email.
The Standard, Professional Direct, and Premier support plans have technical support for engineers via email and
phone.
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

 

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Data that is stored in the Archive access tier of an Azure Storage account can be accessed at any time by using
azcopy.exe.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. can only be read by using Azure Backup
C. must be restored before the data can be accessed
D. must be rehydrated before the data can be accessed
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that the services running on the virtual machines are available if a single data center fails.
Solution: You deploy virtual machines to two or more resource groups.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/regions-and-availability

 

QUESTION 8
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q8

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass az-900 exam questions q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Your company implements Azure policies to automatically add a watermark to Microsoft Word documents that contain
credit card information.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. DDoS protection
C. Azure Information Protection
D. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/infoprotect-quick-start-tutorial


QUESTION 12
You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines.
You need to control the ports that devices on the Internet can use to access the virtual machines.
What should you use?
A. a network security group (NSG)
B. an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) role
C. an Azure Active Directory group
D. an Azure key vault
Correct Answer: A
Restricting Internet access to your VMs in Azure can be achieved by making use of Azure Network Security Groups.
References: https://scomandothergeekystuff.com/2018/04/02/blocking-internet-access-for-azure-vms/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Linux and has the Azure CLI tools installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a Docker container build strategy that meets the following requirements:
1.
Minimizes image sizes
2.
Minimizes the security surface area of the final image What should you include in the recommendation?
A. multi-stage builds
B. PowerShell Desired State Configuration (DSC)
C. Docker Swarm
D. single-stage builds
Correct Answer: A
Multi-stage builds are a new feature requiring Docker 17.05 or higher on the daemon and client. Multistage builds are
useful to anyone who has struggled to optimize Dockerfiles while keeping them easy to read and maintain. Incorrect
Answers:
C: A swarm consists of multiple Docker hosts which run in swarm mode and act as managers (to manage membership
and delegation) and workers (which run swarm services). References: https://docs.docker.com/develop/developimages/multistage-build/

 

QUESTION 2
Your company is building a new solution in Java.
The company currently uses a SonarQube server to analyze the code of .NET solutions.
You need to analyze and monitor the code quality of the Java solution.
Which task types should you add to the build pipeline?
A. Chef
B. Gradle
C. Octopus
D. Gulp
Correct Answer: B
SonarQube is a set of static analyzers that can be used to identify areas of improvement in your code. It allows you to
analyze the technical debt in your project and keep track of it in the future. With Maven and Gradle build tasks, you can
run SonarQube analysis with minimal setup in a new or existing Azure DevOps Services build task.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/java/sonarqube?view=azure-devops

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You have a project in Azure DevOps that has three teams as shown in the Teams exhibit. (Click the Teams tab.)[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q3

You create a new dashboard named Dash1.
You configure the dashboard permissions for the Control project as shown in the Permissions exhibit. (Click the
Permissions tab.)

[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q3-1

All other permissions have the default values set.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q3-2

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q3-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/report/dashboards/charts-dashboard-permissions-access

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You need to recommend a solution for deploying charts by using Helm and Tiller to Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) in
an RBAC-enabled cluster.
Which three commands should you recommend be run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate commands from
the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q4

Step 1: Kubectl create
You can add a service account to Tiller using the –service-account flag while you’re configuring Helm (step 2 below).
As a prerequisite, you’ll have to create a role binding which specifies a role and a service account name that have
been set up in advance.
Example: Service account with the cluster-admin role
$ kubectl create -f rbac-config.YAML
service account “tiller” created
cluster role binding “tiller” created
$ helm init –service-account tiller
Step 2: helm init
To deploy a basic Tiller into an AKS cluster, use the helm init command.
Step 3: helm install
To install charts with Helm, use the helm install command and specify the name of the chart to install.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/aks/kubernetes-helm
https://docs.helm.sh/using_helm/#tiller-namespaces-and-rbac

 

QUESTION 5
You have a GitHub repository.
You create a new repository in Azure DevOps.
You need to recommend a procedure to clone the repository from GitHub to Azure DevOps.
What should you recommend?
A. Create a pull request.
B. Create a webhook.
C. Create a service connection for GitHub.
D. From Import a Git repository, click Import.
E. Create a personal access token in Azure DevOps.
Correct Answer: D
You can import an existing Git repo from GitHub, Bitbucket, GitLab, or other location into a new or empty existing repo
in your project in Azure DevOps. Import into a new repo
1.
Select Repos, Files.
2.
From the repo drop-down, select Import repository.
3.
If the source repo is publicly available, just enter the clone URL of the source repository and a name for your new Git
repository.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/import-git-repository?view=azure-devops


QUESTION 6
You need to implement the code flow strategy for Project2 in Azure DevOps.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q6

Scenario: Implement a code flow strategy for Project2 that will:
Enable Team2 to submit pull requests for Project2.
Enable Team2 to work independently on changes to a copy of Project2.
Ensure that any intermediary changes performed by Team2 on a copy of Project2 will be subject to the same
restrictions as the ones defined in the building policy of Project2.
Step 1: Create a repository Step 2: Add a build policy for the master branch Step 3: Create a branch Each branch must
have a defined policy about how to integrate code into this branch. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/learn/devops-at-microsoft/release-flow

 

QUESTION 7
To resolve the current technical issue, what should you do to the Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode command?
A. Change the value of the ConfigurationMode parameter.
B. Replace the Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode cmdlet with Register-AzureRmAutomationScheduledRunbook
C. Add the AllowModuleOverwrite parameter.
D. Add the DefaultProfile parameter.
Correct Answer: A
Change the ConfigurationMode parameter from ApplyOnly to ApplyAndAutocorrect.
The Register-AzureRmAutomationDscNode cmdlet registers an Azure virtual machine as an APS Desired State
Configuration (DSC) node in an Azure Automation account.
Scenario: Current Technical Issue
The test servers are configured correctly when first deployed, but they experience configuration drift over time. Azure
Automation State Configuration fails to correct the configurations.
Azure Automation State Configuration nodes are registered by using the following command.[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q7

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.automation/registerazurermautomationdscnode?view=azurermps-6.13.0

 

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You have an approval process that contains a condition. The condition requires that releases be approved by a team
leader before they are deployed.
You have a policy stating that approvals must occur within eight hours.
You discover that deployment fails if the approvals take longer than two hours.
You need to ensure that the deployments only fail if the approvals take longer than eight hours.
Solution: From Pre-deployment conditions, you modify the Time between re-evaluation of gates option.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Gates allow automatic collection of health signals from external services and then promote the release when all the
signals are successful at the same time or stop the deployment on timeout. Typically, gates are used in connection with
incident management, problem management, change management, monitoring, and external approval systems.
Approvals and gates give you additional control over the start and completion of the deployment pipeline. Each stage in
a release pipeline can be configured with pre-deployment and post-deployment conditions that can include waiting for
users to manually approve or reject deployments, and checking with other automated systems until specific conditions
are verified.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/release/approvals/gates

 

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure DevOps project that uses many package feeds. You need to simplify the project by using a single
feed that stores packages produced by your company and packages consumed from remote feeds. The solution must
support public feeds and authenticated feeds.
What should you enable in DevOps?
A. Universal Packages
B. views in Azure Artifacts
C. upstream sources
D. a symbol server
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
You have an Azure DevOps organization named Contoso that contains a project named Project1.
You provision an Azure key vault named Keyvault1.
You need to reference Keyvault1 secrets in a build pipeline of Project1.
What should you do first?
A. Create a XAML build service.
B. Create a variable group in Project1.
C. Add a secure file to Project1.
D. Configure the security policy of Contoso.
Correct Answer: D
Before this will work, the build needs permission to access the Azure Key Vault. This can be added to the Azure Portal.
Open the Access Policies in the Key Vault and add a new one. Choose the principle used in the DevOps build.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/release/azure-key-vault

 

QUESTION 11
You plan to create an image that will contain a .NET Core application.
You have a Dockerfile file that contains the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q11

You need to ensure that the image is as small as possible when the image is built. Which line should you modify in the
file?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 7
Correct Answer: A
Multi-stage builds (in Docker 17.05 or higher) allow you to drastically reduce the size of your final image, without
struggling to reduce the number of intermediate layers and files.
With multi-stage builds, you use multiple FROM statements in your Dockerfile. Each FROM instruction can use a
different base, and each of them begins a new stage of the build. You can selectively copy artifacts from one stage to
another, leaving behind everything you don\\’t want in the final image.
References: https://docs.docker.com/develop/develop-images/multistage-build/#use-multi-stage-builds

 

QUESTION 12
SIMULATION
You need to ensure that an Azure web app named az400-9940427-main can retrieve secrets from an Azure key vault
named az400-9940427-kv1 by using a system managed identity.
The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
To complete this task, sign in to the Microsoft Azure portal.
Correct Answer: See solution below.
1.
In the Azure portal navigate to the az400-9940427-main app.
2.
Scroll down to the Settings group in the left navigation.
3.
Select Managed identity.
4.
Within the System assigned tab, switch Status to On. Click Save.[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q12

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/overview-managed-identity


QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Your company plans to deploy an application to the following endpoints:
1.
Ten virtual machines hosted in Azure
2.
Ten virtual machines hosted in an on-premises data center environment
All the virtual machines have the Azure Pipelines agent.
You need to implement a release strategy for deploying the application to the endpoints.
What should you recommend using to deploy the application to the endpoints? To answer, drag the appropriate
components to the correct endpoints. Each component may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need
to drag
the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass az-400 exam questions q13-1

Box 1: A deployment group
When authoring an Azure Pipelines or TFS Release pipeline, you can specify the deployment targets for a job using a
deployment group.
If the target machines are Azure VMs, you can quickly and easily prepare them by installing the Azure Pipelines Agent
Azure VM extension on each of the VMs, or by using the Azure Resource Group Deployment task in your release
pipeline
to create a deployment group dynamically.
Box 2: A deployment group
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/release/deployment-groups

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q1-1

References:
https://blogs.microsoft.com/on-the-issues/2018/05/17/microsoft-cloud-delivers-when-it-comes-to-energy-efficiency-andcarbon-emission-reductions-study-finds/
https://www.liquidweb.com/blog/private-cloud/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/cloud-adoption/getting-started/azure-resource-access
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/product-categories/security/

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are the Microsoft Office 365 administrator for a company.
The company has the following requirements:
1.
Users must be able to use incompatible applications on a Windows 10 device.
2.
Cloud-based applications must use the same credentials as on-premises applications.
3.
Users must be prevented from copying company data from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices.
You need to determine which technologies should be used for each requirement.
Which technologies should be used? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q2-1

References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/modern-desktop/enterprise/windows-virtual-desktop
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-azure-ad-connect https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/intune/what-is-intune

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q3-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/csp-documents-and-learning-resources
https://www.qbsgroup.com/news/what-is-the-microsoft-cloud-solution-provider-program/

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are implementing cloud services.
Match each scenario to its service. To answer, drag the appropriate scenario from the column on the left to its cloud
service on the right. Each scenario may be used only once.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q4

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/hybrid-cloud-overview

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You implement the Compliance Manager.
You need to retrieve status information for a control task.
Which two options can you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q5-1

References: https://content.cloudguides.com/guides/Compliance%20Manager

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft 365 with a business support plan.
You need to identify Service Level Agreements (SLAs) from Microsoft for the support plan.
What response can you expect for each event type? To answer, drag the appropriate responses to the correct event
types. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q6

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/support

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q7-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/what-is-information-protection

 

QUESTION 8
Your company is evaluating the differences between deployments of Office 365 ProPlus and Office 2016.
You need to determine the installation features of each deployment.
Which installation feature is unique to Office 365 ProPlus?
A. Installation can be completed by using Click-to-Run.
B. Installation can be completed by using System Center Configuration Manager.
C. Installation is available in both 32-bit and 64-bit versions.
D. Installation is on the user\\’s local computer.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
You are the desktop administrator for an organization.
You need to ensure that Office 365 ProPlus is installed on all employee computers.
Which three tools can you use to deploy Office 365 ProPlus? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft Intune
B. System Center Operations Manager
C. Windows Installer (MSI) package
D. System Center Configuration Manager
E. Office Deployment Tool
Correct Answer: ADE
Microsoft Intune allows you to deploy Office 365 ProPlus applications to Windows 10 devices from the cloud.
System Center Configuration Manager allows you to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers from a local source,
using your Configuration Manager distribution points.
The Office Deployment Tool (ODT) allows you to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers from the Office Content
Delivery Network (CDN) or from a shared folder on your network.
Reference:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/enterprise-mobility-security/deploying-office-365-proplus-with-microsoftintune/ba-p/250292
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/DeployOffice/deploy-office-365-proplus-from-the-cloud
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/DeployOffice/deploy-office-365-proplus-from-a-local-source

 

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You are the Azure administrator for a company. The company uses only Platform as a Service (PaaS).
You need to identify which solution components Microsoft must manage and which solution components your IT staff
must manage.
Match each management owner to its component. To answer, drag the responsible party from the column on the left to
its component on the right. Each party may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q10

References: https://www.itprotoday.com/industry-perspectives/choosing-cloud-model-saas-versus-paas

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
A company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. The company plans to use eDiscovery to meet legal discovery
requirements.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q11-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/ediscovery#ediscoverycases
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/manage-ediscovery-cases https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/office365/securitycompliance/assign-ediscovery-permissions

 

QUESTION 12
A company deploys Windows 10 to all devices.
Feature updates to Windows as a service must be installed as frequently as possible.
Which Windows 10 service channel installs updates most frequently?
A. Windows Insider Program Servicing channel
B. Long-term Servicing channel
C. Semi-Annual Servicing channel
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/get-started-updates-channels-tools

 

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
A company uses Microsoft 365.
A manager wants to increase the efficiency of team members.
You need to identify the tools that can help improve team effectiveness.
Which tool should you identify for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct requirements.
Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q13

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/workplace-analytics/use/explore-metrics-meetings-overview

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First, you need to know the most basic Microsoft 365 exam information.

Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services:

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security:

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

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QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You review the Security and Compliance report in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD) as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q2

An on-premises Active Directory user account named Allan Yoo is synchronized to Azure AD. You view Allan\\’s

account from Microsoft 365 and notice that his username is set to [email protected] For each of the
following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q2-2

QUESTION 3
Your company recently purchased a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You enable Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all 500 users in the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant.
You need to generate a report that lists all the users who completed the Azure MFA registration process.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.
A. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-AzureADUser cmdlet.
B. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-MsolUser cmdlet.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Multi-Factor Authentication? Server Status blade.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Risky sign-ins blade.

Correct Answer: B

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting

QUESTION 4
You need to create the user licenses group. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which group type and control method should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: 

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q4-1

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
You add an app named App1 to the enterprise applications in contoso.com.
You need to configure self-service for App1.
What should you do first?
A. Assign App1 to users and groups.
B. Add an owner to App1.
C. Configure the provisioning mode for App1.
D. Configure an SSO method for App1.
Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/manage-self-service-access

QUESTION 6
Your company uses on-premises Windows Server File Classification Infrastructure 9FCI). Some documents on the on-premises file servers are classified as Confidential.
You migrate the files from the on-premises file servers to Microsoft SharePoint Online.
You need to ensure that you can implement data loss prevention (DLP) policies for the uploaded files based on the
Confidential classification.
What should you do first?
A. From the SharePoint admin center, create a managed property.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, configure a hybrid search.
C. From the Security and Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DlpComplianceRule cmdlet.
D. From the Security and Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DataClassification cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/policy-and-compliance-dlp/newdataclassification?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 7

You have an on-premises web application that is published by using a URL of https://app.contoso.local.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several external users must be able to connect to the web application.
You need to recommend a solution for external access to the application. The solution must support multi-factor
authentication.
Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From an on-premises server, install a connector and then publish the app.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, enable an Application Proxy.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a conditional access policy.
D. From an on-premises server, install an Authentication Agent.
E. Republish the web application by using https://app.contoso.local.
Correct Answer: AB

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy-add-on-premisesapplication

QUESTION 8
Your company has 10 offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers.
Each office is configured as a separate subnet.
You discover that one of the offices has the following:
Computers that have several preinstalled applications
Computers that use nonstandard computer names
Computers that have Windows 10 preinstalled
Computers that are in a workgroup
You must configure the computers to meet the following corporate requirements:
All the computers must be joined to the domain.
All the computers must have computer names that use a prefix of CONTOSO.
All the computers must only have approved corporate applications installed.
You need to recommend a solution to redeploy computers. The solution must minimize deployment time.A. a provisioning package
B. wipe and load refresh
C. Windows Autopilot
D. an in-place upgrade
Correct Answer: A

By using a Provisioning, IT administrators can create a self-contained package that contains all of the configurations,
settings, and apps that need to be applied to a device. Incorrect Answers:
C: With Windows Autopilot the user can set up pre-configure devices without the need to consult their IT administrator.
D: Use the In-Place Upgrade option when you want to keep all (or at least most) existing applications.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-10-deployment-scenarios
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot

QUESTION 9
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q9

Another administrator removes User1 from Group1 and adds Group2 to Group1.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q9-1

QUESTION 10
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
You purchase a domain named contoso.com from a registrar and add all the required DNS records.
You create a user account named User1. User1 is configured to sign in as [email protected]
You need to configure User1 to sign in as [email protected]
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q10-1

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) to manage devices.
Your company uses the following types of devices:
Windows 10 Windows 8.1 Android iOS
Which devices can be managed by using co-management?
A. Windows 10 and Windows 8.1 only. Windows 10, Android, and iOS only
C. Windows 10 only
D. Windows 10, Windows 8.1, Android, and iOS
Correct Answer: D

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/choose-a-device-managementsolution#bkmk_intune

QUESTION 12
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use the Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to deploy Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus applications to all the client computers at your company.
You prepare the following XML file for the planned deployment. 

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q13

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q13-1

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QUESTION 1
From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a retention policy named Policy1.
You need to prevent all users from disabling the policy or reducing the retention period.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q1

QUESTION 2
You need to meet the technical requirement for the SharePoint administrator. What should you do? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q2-1

QUESTION 3

On which server should you install the Azure ATP sensor?
A. Server 1
B. Server 2
C. Server 3
D. Server 4
E. Server 5
Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/atp-capacity-planning

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure pilot co-management.
You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1.
You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: You create a device configuration profile from the Intune admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have several devices enrolled in Microsoft Intone.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that includes the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q5

You add User3 as a device enrollment manager in Intune.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q5-2

QUESTION 6
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to configure Microsoft 365 to meet the following requirements:
Malware found in email attachments must be quarantined for 20 days.
The email address of senders to your company must be verified.
Which two options should you configure in the Security and Compliance admin center? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q6-1

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
Your company implements Windows Information Protection (WIP).
You need to modify which users and applications are affected by WIP.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options m the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q7-1

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure pilot co-management.
You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1.
You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: You add Device1 to a Configuration Manager device collection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to implement Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) for all the supported devices enrolled in
mobile device management (MDM).
What should you include in the device configuration profile? To answer, select- appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q9-1

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com. Three files were created on
February 1, 2019, as shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10

On March 1, 2019, you create two retention labels named Label1 and Label2.
The settings for Lable1 are configured as shown in the Label1 exhibit. (Click the Label1 tab.)

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-1

The settings for Lable2 are configured as shown in the Label2 exhibit. (Click the Label2 tab.)

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-2

You apply the retention labels to Exchange email, SharePoint sites, and OneDrive accounts. For each of the following
statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-4

Box 1: No
Retention overrides deletion.
Box 2: No
Content in a document library will be moved to the first-stage Recycle Bin within 7 days of disposition, and then
permanently deleted another 93 days after that. Thus 100 days in total.
Box 3: No
Items in an Exchange mailbox will be permanently deleted within 14 days of disposition.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/disposition-reviews

QUESTION 11
Your company uses Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Windows Defender ATP contains the
device groups are shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11

You onboard computers to Windows Defender ATP as shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11-1

Of which groups are Computer1 and Computer2 members? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11-3

QUESTION 12
You need to meet the requirement for the legal department
Which three actions should you perform in sequence from the Security and Compliance admin center? To answer,
move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q12-1

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to enable Microsoft Azure Information Protection.
You need to ensure that only the members of a group named PilotUsers can protect content.
What should you do?
A. Run the Add-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator cmdlet.
B. Create an Azure Information Protection policy.
C. Configure the protection activation status for Azure Information Protection.
D. Run the Set-AadrmOnboardingControlPolicy cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/kemckinn/2018/05/17/creating-labels-for-azure-information-protection/ 

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This exam tests candidates seeking CCNP Collaboration on their ability for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a multisite environment.

It covers Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility.

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Latest updates Cisco 300-075 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route
when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q2

A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach
cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message “Not Enough Bandwidth” on their phone and hears a fast
busy tone. Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
D. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
Correct Answer: BF
Automated alternate routing (AAR) provides a mechanism to reroute calls through the PSTN or other network by using
an alternate number when Cisco Unified Communications Manager blocks a call due to insufficient location bandwidth.
With automated alternate routing, the caller does not need to hang up and redial the called party.

QUESTION 3
Which symbol is required for globalized call routing?
A. +
B. *
C. %
D. /
E. ;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default value for the Drop Ad Hoc Conference service parameter?
A. Never
B. When No On-Net Parties Remain in the Conference
C. When No Off-Net Parties Remain in the Conference
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference When Creator Leaves
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When configuring a secure SIP trunk, to which Cisco Unified Communications manager trust store must you upload the
Cisco VCS certificate?
A. TVS-trust
B. tomcat-trust
C. ipsec-trust
D. CallManager-trust
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When you configure TEHO for long-distance calls and use the local PSTN gateways as fallback, how many route
patterns do you require for a cluster with five sites that are located in different area codes?
A. 6 when using a local route group
B. 10 when not using a local route group
C. 5 when using a local route group
D. 15 when not using a local route group
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for
Windows.
SX20 System information:lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7

DX650 Configuration:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-1

MRGL:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-2

DP:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-3

Locations:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-4

AARG:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-5

CSS:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-6

Movie Failure:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-7

Movie Settings:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-8

A new DX650 IP phone with MAC address D0C7.8914.132D, IP address is 172.18.32.119 has been added to the Cisco
Unified Communications Manager, but is not registering properly. What is causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be default.
B. The DX650 is the incorrect calling search space.
C. The DX650 Phones does not support SIP.
D. The location Hub_None has not been activated.
E. The DX650\\’s MAC address is incorrect in the Cisco UCM.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
A presales engineer is working on a quote for a major customer and must evaluate how many Cisco VCS Expressway
traversal call licenses for which to plan.
Calls to and from which three routes must the engineer include in the tally? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. Cisco 9971 Endpoint
C. border controllers
D. gatekeeper
E. SIP trunk
F. VCS
Correct Answer: CDF
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/telepresence-video-communication-server-vcs/118872-technote-vcs-00.html

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q9

How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager advertise dn-block 1?
A. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:
B. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:1972555
C. 4XXX
D. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:+ 1972555
E. 19725554XXX
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about Zones on Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You can register endpoints to default zone.
B. Bandwidth for calls between endpoints in the same zone cannot be restricted.
C. A neighbor zone connects Cisco VCS to Cisco VCS Expressway for NAT, PAT, and firewall traversal.
D. Endpoints are associated to default subzone or any customized subzone depending on the IP address of the
endpoint.
E. A neighbor zone connects Cisco VCS Core to other systems via SIP or H.323.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
The network administrator at Enterprise X is creating the guidelines for a new IPT deployment consisting of a large
number of remote offices. Every user within Enterprise X is assigned a directory number of 5 digits. Which option might
cause an issue in a multisite deployment?
A. Overlapping DID ranges are allocated to each site.
B. The maximum number of IP phones are in use at each remote site.
C. MoH cannot be provided for the remote sites.
D. All media streams are necessarily routed through the central office for calls to establish correctly.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which route pattern is the best match in Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a dialed number of +1 412 555
1234?
A. \+1412.XXXXXXX
B. +1!
C. ^\+1412…….$
D. \+1.!
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An engineer must configure a new Audio Codec Preference list for a new site in their network. Which type of list does
this configuration establish?
A. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Locations
B. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Device Mobility Groups
C. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Device Pools
D. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Regions
Correct Answer: D

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This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine, including:

  • Architecture and deployment
  • Policy enforcement
  • Web Auth and guest services
  • Profiler
  • BYOD
  • Endpoint compliance
  • Network access device administration

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Latest updates Cisco 300-715 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which supplicant(s) and server(s) are capable of supporting EAR-CHAINING?
A. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Identity Service Engine
B. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Access Control Server
C. Cisco Secure Services Client and Cisco Access Control Server
D. Windows Native Supplicant and Cisco Identity Service Engine
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit:

lead4pass 300-715 exam questions q2

Which command is typed within the CU of a switch to view the troubleshooting output?
A. show authentication sessions mac 000e.84af.59af details
B. show authentication registrations
C. show authentication interface gigabitethemet2/0/36
D. show authentication sessions method

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Does a user report that a switch\\’s RADIUS accounting packets are not being seen on the Cisco ISE server Which the command is the user missing in the switch\\’s configuration?
A. radius-server vsa send accounting
B. aaa accounting network default start-stop group radius
C. aaa accounting resource default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting exec default start-stop group radius
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What are the two components of the posture requirement when configuring the Cisco ISE posture? (Choose two)
A. updates
B. remediation actions
C. Client Provisioning portal
D. conditions
E. access policy
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 5
What service can be enabled on the Cisco ISE node to identify the types of devices connecting to a network?
A. MAB
B. profiling
C. posture
D. central web authentication
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
During BYOD flow, from where does a Microsoft Windows PC download the Network Setup Assistant?
A. Cisco App Store
B. Microsoft App Store
C. Cisco ISE directly
D. Native OTA functionality
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which radius attribute can be used to dynamically assign the inactivity active timer for MAB users from the Cisco ISE
node?
A. radius-server timeout
B. idle-timeout attribute
C. termination-action attribute
D. session-timeout attribute
Correct Answer: B
When the inactivity timer is enabled, the switch monitors the activity from authenticated endpoints. When the inactivity timer expires, the switch removes the authenticated session. The inactivity timer for MAB can be statically configured on
the switch port, or it can be dynamically assigned using the RADIUS idle-timeout attribute (Attribute 28)

 

QUESTION 8
What gives Cisco ISE an option to scan endpoints for vulnerabilities?
A. authorization policy
B. authentication policy
C. authentication profile
D. authorization profile
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9

Drag the steps to configure a Cisco ISE node as a primary administration node from the left into the correct order on the
night.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-715 exam questions q9

Choose Administration > System > Deployment.
The Register button will be disabled initially. To enable this button, you must configure a Primary PAN.
Step 2
Check the checkbox next to the current node, and click Edit.
Step 3
Click Make Primary to configure your Primary PAN.
Step 4
Enter data on the General Settings tab.

Step 5
Click Save to save the node configuration.

 

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the IP HTTP server command on a switch?
A. It enables the https server for users for web authentication
B. It enables MAB authentication on the switch
C. It enables the switch to redirect users for web authentication.
D. It enables dot1x authentication on the switch.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which port does cisco ISE use for native supplicant provisioning of a windows computer?
A. TCP/UDP 8905
B. TCP 8443
C. TCP/UDP 8909
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: C
TCP: 80, 8443 (web or Cisco NAC agent installation) Note TCP port 8443 is enabled by default, configurable, and
corresponds to Guest configuration TCP: 8905 (Cisco NAC agent update) TCP: 8909 and UDP: 8909 (web, Cisco NAC
Agent, supplicant provisioning wizard installation)

 

QUESTION 12
Which personas can a Cisco ISE node assume\\’?
A. policy service, gatekeeping, and monitoring
B. administration, policy service, and monitoring
C. administration, policy service, gatekeeping
D. administration, monitoring, and gatekeeping
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_dis_deploy.html

The persona or personas of a node determine the services provided by a node. An ISE node can assume any or all of
the following personas: Administration, Policy Service, and Monitoring. The menu options that are available through the administrative user interface is dependent on the role and personas that an ISE node assumes. See Cisco ISE Nodes
and Available Menu Options for more information.

 

QUESTION 13
Cisco ISE antivirus remediation policy options?
A. Upload a file
B. Antivirus
C. Uniform resource locator
Correct Answer: AC
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/identity-services-engine/116143-config-cise-posture-00.html

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This exam tests your knowledge of implementing applications that automate and extend Cisco Collaboration platforms, including:

  • Programming concepts
  • APIs and automation protocols
  • Python programming

Latest Updates Cisco 300-835 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

After the AXL query ns: update phone is used to upgrade a phone configuration successfully, the phone does not reflect
the change. Which other methods must be performed for the change to take effect?
A. ns:getPhone
B. ns: restart phone
C. ns:reboot phone
D. ns:savePhone

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which URI for XML APIs is used in Cisco Webex Meetings to manage users, meetings, events, and trainings?
A. https://api.webex.com/v1/
B. https://api.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService
C. https://api.webex.com/v1/meetings
D. https://api.webex.com/MeetingsService/XMLService

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

DRAG DROP
Drag-drop the code to create a valid AXL API script to create a new Route Partition, using the Python Zeep library. Not
all options are used.
Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q3-1

QUESTION 4

An In-Room Control Panel can be configured as “global” (always available). Which order panel type is supported?
A. Background
B. Do Not Disturb
C. Never
D. Out-of-Call

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of using Python virtual environments?
A. It isolates dependencies of every project from the system and each other.
B. It allows Python to differentiate between package versions.
C. It frees the developer from installing the project dependencies.
D. It puts dependent packages in a common site-packages directory.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

An existing user (identified by userId) needs to be allowed to host Webex meetings. Which API call is used to assign the
new license?
A. PUT /license/{userId}
B. POST /people/{userId}
C. PUT /people/{userId}
D. POST /license/{userId}

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Using the Finesse REST APIs coupled with the Finesse notifications, which two use cases can be accomplished?
(Choose two.)
A. Add video calling capabilities to an existing application such as a CRM.
B. Add outbound call capabilities to an existing application such as a CRM.
C. Develop a secure monitoring application that captures the agent\’s states and dialog information of every agent in
the contact center system.
D. Develop a fully functioning custom agent desktop that has call control, workflows, and client logging.
E. Develop a fully functioning custom agent desktop for chat, email, and SMS interactions including the content of the
chat, email, and SMS.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q8

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Meetings XML API HTTP request message with several invalid portions is shown. Which
reference points to a line in the exhibit that correctly indicates that this is a LstsummaryUser request?
A. line 17
B. line 1
C. line 18
D. line 14

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which two capabilities can be implemented in a custom application using the Cisco Unified IP Phone Services API?
(Choose two.)
A. Authenticate the phone to the network.
B. Display corporate directory information.
C. Play multicast messages.
D. Upgrade phone firmware.
E. Create new phone devices.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q10

Refer to the exhibit. This exhibit is a simple Python script to monitor call activity for a local Webex room device. Which
code snippet listens for call events and completes the script?
A. await client.xfeedback( [Status\\',Call\’, Status\\'], callback, False) B. await client.subscribe( [Feedback\’, Call\\',Status\’], callback, False)
C. await client.subscribe( [Status\\',Call\’, Status\\'], callback, False) D. await client.xfeedback( [Feedback\’, Call\\',Status\’], callback, False)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q11

Refer to the exhibit. Based on this Webex Meetings XML API schema snippet, which XML object is a valid element?

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which type of endpoint is used by the Cisco Unified JTAPI implementation in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. gateways
B. gatekeepers
C. phones
D. SIP trunks

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which two methods can be used to add a custom UI panel to a Webex room device? (Choose two.)
A. Import an existing panel configuration file by connecting a USB storage drive to the device.
B. Use xAPI to push a JSON panel configuration to the device.
C. Create a panel using the device UI Extensions Editor (previously In-Room Controls).
D. Restore a device backup file present on a PC that contains a panel configuration.
E. From a T-shell session, use the git command to merge the XML configuration of a panel.

Correct Answer: AE

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[2020.6] Latest Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions and 300-820 Exam Dumps

Where can I get the latest Cisco 300-820 exam dumps and online practice questions? Ciscoexampdf updates Cisco Free Exam Dumps Blog throughout the year! “Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI)” 300-820 exam. You can find the free 300-820 pdf, 300-820 practice question online test, and our recommended https://www.lead4pass.com/300-820.html brand site in Ciscoexampdf! Easy access to 300-820 exam dumps!

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Latest Cisco 300-820 exam pdf free download

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300-820 CLCEI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clcei-300-820.html

This exam tests your knowledge of collaboration cloud and edge solutions, including:

  • Cisco Unified IM and Presence
  • Expressway configurations
  • Cisco WebEx Teams hybrid and emerging technologies

Latest Updates Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q1

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring a search rule that routes call to a zone, what occurs when 13358 is dialed?
A. 13358 is replaced by 135 and then is sent to the local zone.
B. 13358 is replaced by 135 and remains in the same zone.
C. 13358 is replaced by 135 and then is sent to the traversal zone.
D. 13358 is sent directly to the traversal zone.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the transformation is true?
A. It converts [email protected]: to [email protected]
B. It changes all patterns that begin with [email protected]: to [email protected]
C. It changes [email protected]: to [email protected]
D. It converts [email protected]: to [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q4

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q5

Refer to the exhibit. An Expressway-C and Expressway-E are configured for B2B calling and the Expressway-E zone is
set to TLS Verify Currently, calls do not reach the Expressway-C. The Traversal Client zone on the Expressway-C for
B2B reports the information in the exhibit for the Peer 1 address.
Which action resolves this error?
A. Configure the Expressway-C Traversal Client zone Peer 1 address with the fully qualified domain name of the
Expressway-E.
B. Configure the Expressway-C Traversal Client zone transport protocol with TCP.
C. Add a server certificate to the Expressway-C that is signed by a certificate authority.
D. Add an intermediate certificate to the Expressway-C that is signed by a certificate authority.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use a private CA-signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate a certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use a public CA-signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with a public or private CA-signed certificate.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7

Which two statements about Expressway media traversal are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Control is the traversal server installed in the DMZ.
B. The Expressway Edge must be put in a firewall DMZ segment.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone can be either a traversal server or client.
D. The Unified Communications traversal zone can be used for Mobile and Remote Access.
E. Both Expressway Edge interfaces can be NATed.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8

In a Mobile and Remote Access deployment, where must communications be encrypted with TLS?
A. Cisco Expressway-E and endpoints outside the enterprise
B. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and IMandP
C. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and endpoints outside the enterprise

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?
A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which service is available in a cloud-based deployment using Cisco Webex Messenger?
A. Presence
B. Phone services
C. Voicemail
D. Call forward services

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the purpose of using ICE for Mobile and Remote Access endpoints in the Cisco Collaboration infrastructure?
A. ICE controls the bandwidth usage for Cisco Collaboration endpoints if the endpoints are located outside the company
network.
B. ICE enables Cisco Collaboration endpoints to determine if there is direct connectivity between them.
C. ICE uses FAST updates to optimize the video quality in case of packet loss. This technology is available only from
Cisco Unified CM version 11.5 and later.
D. ICE enablement allows for the Cisco Collaboration endpoint to register through Expressway servers to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager behind a firewall.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

When determining why Mobile and Remote Access to Cisco TelePresence equipment does not work anymore for an
organization. There are several administrators and configuration changes that could have happened without anyone
knowing. Internal communication seems to be working, but no external system can register or call anywhere. Gathering
symptoms, you also discover that no internal systems can call out either.
What is TraversalZone missing that causes this issue?
A. link to the DefaultZone
B. pipe to the DefaultZone
C. SIP trunk to the DefaultZone
D. route pattern to the DefaultZone

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Jabber cannot log in via Mobile and Remote Access. You inspect Expressway-C logs and see this error message:
XCP_JABBERD Detail=”Unable to connect to host \’%IP%\’, port 7400:(111) Connection refused”
Which is the cause of this issue?
A. Rich Media Session licenses are not activated on Expressway-E.
B. Expressway-E is listening to the wrong IP interface.
C. The destination port for Expressway-E is set to 7400 instead of 8443 on the Expressway-C.
D. The XCP Service is not activated on Expressway-E.

Correct Answer: B

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