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300-835 CLAUTO – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clauto-300-835.html

This exam tests your knowledge of implementing applications that automate and extend Cisco Collaboration platforms, including:

  • Programming concepts
  • APIs and automation protocols
  • Python programming

Latest Updates Cisco 300-835 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

After the AXL query ns: update phone is used to upgrade a phone configuration successfully, the phone does not reflect
the change. Which other methods must be performed for the change to take effect?
A. ns:getPhone
B. ns: restart phone
C. ns:reboot phone
D. ns:savePhone

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which URI for XML APIs is used in Cisco Webex Meetings to manage users, meetings, events, and trainings?
A. https://api.webex.com/v1/
B. https://api.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService
C. https://api.webex.com/v1/meetings
D. https://api.webex.com/MeetingsService/XMLService

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

DRAG DROP
Drag-drop the code to create a valid AXL API script to create a new Route Partition, using the Python Zeep library. Not
all options are used.
Select and Place:

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q3

Correct Answer:

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q3-1

QUESTION 4

An In-Room Control Panel can be configured as “global” (always available). Which order panel type is supported?
A. Background
B. Do Not Disturb
C. Never
D. Out-of-Call

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of using Python virtual environments?
A. It isolates dependencies of every project from the system and each other.
B. It allows Python to differentiate between package versions.
C. It frees the developer from installing the project dependencies.
D. It puts dependent packages in a common site-packages directory.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

An existing user (identified by userId) needs to be allowed to host Webex meetings. Which API call is used to assign the
new license?
A. PUT /license/{userId}
B. POST /people/{userId}
C. PUT /people/{userId}
D. POST /license/{userId}

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Using the Finesse REST APIs coupled with the Finesse notifications, which two use cases can be accomplished?
(Choose two.)
A. Add video calling capabilities to an existing application such as a CRM.
B. Add outbound call capabilities to an existing application such as a CRM.
C. Develop a secure monitoring application that captures the agent\’s states and dialog information of every agent in
the contact center system.
D. Develop a fully functioning custom agent desktop that has call control, workflows, and client logging.
E. Develop a fully functioning custom agent desktop for chat, email, and SMS interactions including the content of the
chat, email, and SMS.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q8

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Meetings XML API HTTP request message with several invalid portions is shown. Which
reference points to a line in the exhibit that correctly indicates that this is a LstsummaryUser request?
A. line 17
B. line 1
C. line 18
D. line 14

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which two capabilities can be implemented in a custom application using the Cisco Unified IP Phone Services API?
(Choose two.)
A. Authenticate the phone to the network.
B. Display corporate directory information.
C. Play multicast messages.
D. Upgrade phone firmware.
E. Create new phone devices.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q10

Refer to the exhibit. This exhibit is a simple Python script to monitor call activity for a local Webex room device. Which
code snippet listens for call events and completes the script?
A. await client.xfeedback( [Status\\',Call\’, Status\\'], callback, False) B. await client.subscribe( [Feedback\’, Call\\',Status\’], callback, False)
C. await client.subscribe( [Status\\',Call\’, Status\\'], callback, False) D. await client.xfeedback( [Feedback\’, Call\\',Status\’], callback, False)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q11

Refer to the exhibit. Based on this Webex Meetings XML API schema snippet, which XML object is a valid element?

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which type of endpoint is used by the Cisco Unified JTAPI implementation in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. gateways
B. gatekeepers
C. phones
D. SIP trunks

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which two methods can be used to add a custom UI panel to a Webex room device? (Choose two.)
A. Import an existing panel configuration file by connecting a USB storage drive to the device.
B. Use xAPI to push a JSON panel configuration to the device.
C. Create a panel using the device UI Extensions Editor (previously In-Room Controls).
D. Restore a device backup file present on a PC that contains a panel configuration.
E. From a T-shell session, use the git command to merge the XML configuration of a panel.

Correct Answer: AE

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300-820 CLCEI – Cisco: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/clcei-300-820.html

This exam tests your knowledge of collaboration cloud and edge solutions, including:

  • Cisco Unified IM and Presence
  • Expressway configurations
  • Cisco WebEx Teams hybrid and emerging technologies

Latest Updates Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q1

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring a search rule that routes call to a zone, what occurs when 13358 is dialed?
A. 13358 is replaced by 135 and then is sent to the local zone.
B. 13358 is replaced by 135 and remains in the same zone.
C. 13358 is replaced by 135 and then is sent to the traversal zone.
D. 13358 is sent directly to the traversal zone.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the transformation is true?
A. It converts [email protected]: to [email protected]
B. It changes all patterns that begin with [email protected]: to [email protected]
C. It changes [email protected]: to [email protected]
D. It converts [email protected]: to [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q4

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q5

Refer to the exhibit. An Expressway-C and Expressway-E are configured for B2B calling and the Expressway-E zone is
set to TLS Verify Currently, calls do not reach the Expressway-C. The Traversal Client zone on the Expressway-C for
B2B reports the information in the exhibit for the Peer 1 address.
Which action resolves this error?
A. Configure the Expressway-C Traversal Client zone Peer 1 address with the fully qualified domain name of the
Expressway-E.
B. Configure the Expressway-C Traversal Client zone transport protocol with TCP.
C. Add a server certificate to the Expressway-C that is signed by a certificate authority.
D. Add an intermediate certificate to the Expressway-C that is signed by a certificate authority.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use a private CA-signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate a certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use a public CA-signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with a public or private CA-signed certificate.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7

Which two statements about Expressway media traversal are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Control is the traversal server installed in the DMZ.
B. The Expressway Edge must be put in a firewall DMZ segment.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone can be either a traversal server or client.
D. The Unified Communications traversal zone can be used for Mobile and Remote Access.
E. Both Expressway Edge interfaces can be NATed.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8

In a Mobile and Remote Access deployment, where must communications be encrypted with TLS?
A. Cisco Expressway-E and endpoints outside the enterprise
B. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and IMandP
C. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and endpoints outside the enterprise

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?
A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which service is available in a cloud-based deployment using Cisco Webex Messenger?
A. Presence
B. Phone services
C. Voicemail
D. Call forward services

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the purpose of using ICE for Mobile and Remote Access endpoints in the Cisco Collaboration infrastructure?
A. ICE controls the bandwidth usage for Cisco Collaboration endpoints if the endpoints are located outside the company
network.
B. ICE enables Cisco Collaboration endpoints to determine if there is direct connectivity between them.
C. ICE uses FAST updates to optimize the video quality in case of packet loss. This technology is available only from
Cisco Unified CM version 11.5 and later.
D. ICE enablement allows for the Cisco Collaboration endpoint to register through Expressway servers to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager behind a firewall.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

When determining why Mobile and Remote Access to Cisco TelePresence equipment does not work anymore for an
organization. There are several administrators and configuration changes that could have happened without anyone
knowing. Internal communication seems to be working, but no external system can register or call anywhere. Gathering
symptoms, you also discover that no internal systems can call out either.
What is TraversalZone missing that causes this issue?
A. link to the DefaultZone
B. pipe to the DefaultZone
C. SIP trunk to the DefaultZone
D. route pattern to the DefaultZone

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Jabber cannot log in via Mobile and Remote Access. You inspect Expressway-C logs and see this error message:
XCP_JABBERD Detail=”Unable to connect to host \’%IP%\’, port 7400:(111) Connection refused”
Which is the cause of this issue?
A. Rich Media Session licenses are not activated on Expressway-E.
B. Expressway-E is listening to the wrong IP interface.
C. The destination port for Expressway-E is set to 7400 instead of 8443 on the Expressway-C.
D. The XCP Service is not activated on Expressway-E.

Correct Answer: B

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This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to implementing core enterprise network technologies, including:

  • Dual stack (IPv4 and IPv6) architecture
  • Virtualization
  • Infrastructure
  • Network assurance
  • Security
  • Automation

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Latest updates Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

What is the benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?
A. They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system.
B. They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs.
C. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient.
D. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)
A. TCP window size
B. TCP MSS
C. IP MTU
D. DF bit clear
E. MTU ignore

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3

Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?
A. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server.
B. It is no supported on Cisco devices.
C. It required certificates for authentication.
D. It is used for HTTP and HTTPs requests.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Refer to exhibit.

ciscoexampdf 350-401 q4

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and
SW1 is the VTP server. Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?
A. SW1 (config)#vtp pruning
B. SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent
C. SW2(config)=vtp pruning
D. SW1 (config >»vtp mode transparent

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?
A. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane.
B. maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency table.
C. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler.
D. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

A client with IP address 209 16b 201 2b must access a web server on port 80 at 209 I6b.200.22b. To allow this traffic.
an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting
to
the webserver.
Which statement allows this traffic?
A. permit TCP host 209 165 200 225 eq 80 hosts 209.165.201.25
B. permit TCP host 209 165.201 25 hosts 209.165.200.225 eq 80
C. permit TCP host 209.165.200 225 It 80 host 209.165.201.25
D. permit TCP host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

When reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?
A. Mismatched OSPF network type
B. Mismatched areas
C. Mismatched MTU size
D. Mismatched OSPF link costs

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit.

ciscoexampdf 350-401 q8

Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding.
The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An
engineer
enters the spanning-tree port-priority 32 commands on GO/1 on SW2. but the port remains blocked.
Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Lmk2 to resolve the issue?
A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1.
B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1.
C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2.
D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

ciscoexampdf 350-401 q9
ciscoexampdf 350-401 q9-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?
A. NTP server
B. PKI server
C. REDIUS server
D. TACACS server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which statement about VXLAN is true?
A. VXLAN uses TCP 35 the transport protocol over the physical data cento network.
B. VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits. which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the
same network.
C. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router
boundaries.
D. VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network the device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?
A. MTU
B. Window size
C. MRU
D. MSS

Correct Answer: D

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Cisco Certified Technician Routing and Switching certification focuses on the skills required for onsite support and maintenance
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accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software;
and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Latest updates Cisco 100-490 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?
A. 16 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 128 kbps

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

When you deploy Cisco Catalyst 3850 Series switches, which two modes of operation can you choose from?
A. Active mode and Standby mode
B. Install mode and Bundle mode
C. Boot mode and Run mode
D. Exec mode and User mode

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

What is the Windows-based program that executes the ping command to test network connectivity?
A. cmd
B. Find
C. Start
D. ipconfig

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?
A. highest two bits
B. lowest two bits
C. highest four bits
D. lowest four bits

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which two ports on a laptop are used to gain console access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
A. DB-9
B. USB
C. DVI
D. RJ-11
E. RJ-45 Ethernet

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?
A. Xmodem
B. copy TFTP: flash:
C. copy flash: TFTP:
D. tftpdnld

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which two Cisco Nexus 3400 Series switches support 400-Gbps Ethernet ports? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 34180YC
B. Cisco Nexus 34200YC-SM
C. Cisco Nexus 3432D-S
D. Cisco Nexus 3408-S
E. Cisco Nexus 3464C

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus3400s/sw/922/interfaces/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_3400_NX-OS_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide_922/b_Cisco_Nexus_3400_NXO_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide_9z_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 8

Which command displays a list of file systems that are available on Cisco devices?
A. show memory
B. show directory
C. show file system
D. show version

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Which type of physical connector does a Gigabit Ethernet port typically use?
A. RJ-9
B. RJ-45
C. DB-25
D. RJ-11

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which Windows-based text editor is preferred for working with a simple text document, such as a Cisco configuration?
A. Microsoft Word
B. Microsoft Notepad
C. Microsoft Access
D. Microsoft Excel

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Which two pieces of information are displayed when you use the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 address
B. keepalive
C. Layer 3 address
D. encapsulation type
E. interface status

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12

Which method is the fastest way to recover a software version that supports a USB flash port on a Cisco device?
A. TFTP command
B. xmodem transfer command
C. copy command with USB memory
D. copy TFTP flash: command

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which type of memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS Software?
A. NVRAM
B. flash
C. SRAM
D. DRAM

Correct Answer: A

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[2020.5] Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 350-601 Exam pdf and Dump Practice Questions

Where to get the latest updates for cisco 350-601 exam questions and answers? May 2020 Update 350-601 Exam Dump, 350-601 pdf, Online Cisco 350-601 Practice Test Questions Free To Improve Skills and Experience,
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This exam tests your knowledge of implementing core data center technologies, including:

  • Network
  • Compute
  • Storage network
  • Automation
  • Security

Latest Updates Cisco 350-601 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q1

An engineer configures a new application profile using the REST API and receives this error message.
Which method can be used before the application profile can be configured?
A. GET to aaaListDomains
B. POST to aaaRefresh
C. POST to aaaLogin
D. POST to analog out
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What is a feature of NFS?
A. zone-based access control
B. Kerberos-based security model
C. block-based file access
D. role-based access control
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What is the advantage of streaming telemetry over SNMP?
A. on-change traps sent to a receiver
B. periodic push-based subscription messages
C. periodic polling of the device status
D. MD5-based authentication on polling
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibitciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q4

What is the result of implementing this configuration?
A. The Fibre Channel interface is configured for SPAN.
B. The Fibre Channel interface is configured for source distribution.
C. The Fibre Channel interlace is configured for FSPF.
D. The Fibre Channel interface is configured for synchronization distribution.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which two authentication types does Cisco UCS Manager support when configuring authentication? (Choose two.)
A. PAM
B. local
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q6

An engineer is implementing zoning on two Cisco MDS switches. After the implementation is finished, E Ports that
connect the two Cisco MDS switches to become isolated.
What is wrong with the implementation?
A. Zones are local to the MDS switch and name service must be used to activate the connection between E Ports.
B. Different zone set names must be configured on both MDS switches.
C. Zones must have the same name on both MDS switches for the E Ports to function.
D. E Ports on both MDS switches must be configured as F Ports for the zoning to function.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q7

What is the reason the system-fm-vrrp checkpoint was created?
A. The VRRP process crashed and the checkpoint was automatically created.
B. The VRRP service restarted and the checkpoint was automatically created.
C. The network administrator manually created it.
D. The VRRP-enabled feature has been disabled.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
An engineer is implementing NetFlow on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch.
Drag and drop the NetFlow commands from the left into the correct order they must be entered on the right.
Select and Place:ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q8

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/112213-netflownexus7000-nsox-configex.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the process of performing an EPLD upgrade on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The upgrade can be performed from the standby supervisor module.
B. The upgrade process disrupts only the module that is being upgraded.
C. The active supervisor can be upgraded.
D. If an upgrade is interrupted, the upgrade continues after a connection is restored.
E. Modules must be online to be upgraded.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
A customer has a requirement for an automation solution that supports periodically acquiring configuration from a
centralized server and aligning UCS servers to their desired state.
Which open-source tool meets this requirement?
A. SaltStack
B. Kubernetes
C. Puppet
D. Terraform
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer enters these commands while in EEM on a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch
event manager applet Backup-config event timer watchdog time 1800 name timer event CLI match “copy running-config
startup-config”
What is the result of applying this configuration?
A. It generates an error because no action is mentioned.
B. It executes the copy running-config startup-coring command.
C. It saves the running configuration every 1800 seconds.
D. It blocks the copy running-config startup-config command.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which product includes prebuilt templates that can be used to customize fabric deployments?
A. Cisco Tetration
B. Cisco Data Center Network Manager
C. Cisco ACI
D. Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: B

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CompTIA SY0-501 exam practice test, free SY0-501 exam dumps

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The CompTIA Security+ exam will certify the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills required to install and configure systems to secure applications, networks, and devices; perform threat analysis and respond with appropriate mitigation techniques; participate in risk mitigation activities; and operate with an awareness of applicable policies, laws, and regulations. The successful candidate will perform these tasks to support the principles of confidentiality, integrity, and availability.

Latest updates CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Shared
D. Session
Correct Answer: B
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-401/key-escrow-3/

QUESTION 2
An employee uses RDP to connect back to the office network.
If RDP is misconfigured, which of the following security exposures would this lead to?
A. A virus on the administrator\\’s desktop would be able to sniff the administrator\\’s username and password.
B. Result in an attacker being able to phish the employee\\’s username and password.
C. A social engineering attack could occur, resulting in the employee\\’s password being extracted.
D. A man in the middle attack could occur, resulting the employee\\’s username and password being captured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Ann, a user, states that her machine has been behaving erratically over the past week. She has experienced slowness
and input lag and found text files that appear to contain pieces of her emails or online conversations with coworkers.
The
technician runs a standard virus scan but detects nothing.
Which of the following types of malware has infected the machine?
A. Ransomware
B. Rootkit
C. Backdoor
D. Keylogger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address. The
socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do
to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?
A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided it is not cost effective to implement safeguards against a known
vulnerability. Which of the following risk responses does this BEST describe?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Mitigation
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A security analyst has received the following alert snippet from the HIDS appliance:lead4pass sy0-501 exam question q6

Given the above logs, which of the following is the cause of the attack?
A. The TCP ports on destination are all open
B. FIN, URG, and PSH flags are set in the packet header
C. TCP MSS is configured improperly
D. There is improper Layer 2 segmentation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is configuring a wireless network with EAP-TLS. Which of the following activities is a requirement for
this configuration?
A. Setting up a TACACS+ server
B. Configuring federation between authentication servers
C. Enabling TOTP
D. Deploying certificates to endpoint devices
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Joe a computer forensic technician responds to an active compromise of a database server. Joe first collects
information in memory, then collects network traffic and finally conducts an image of the hard drive.
Which of the following procedures did Joe follow?
A. Order of volatility
B. Chain of custody
C. Recovery procedure
D. Incident isolation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) drafts an agreement between the organization and its employees. The agreement
outlines ramifications for releasing information without consent and/or approvals. Which of the following BEST describes
this type of agreement?
A. ISA
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. SLA
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An administrator intends to configure an IPSec solution that provides ESP with integrity protection, but not confidentiality
protection. Which of the following AES modes of operation would meet this integrity-only requirement?
A. HMAC
B. PCBC
C. CBC
D. GCM
E. CFB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the main difference an XSS vulnerability and a CSRF vulnerability?
A. XSS needs the attacker to be authenticated to the trusted server.
B. XSS does not need the victim to be authenticated to the trusted server.
C. CSRF needs the victim to be authenticated to the trusted server.
D. CSRF does not need the victim to be authenticated to the trusted server.
E. CSRF does not need the attacker to be authenticated to the trusted server.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
As part of a new industry regulation, companies are required to utilize secure, standardized OS settings. A technical
must ensure the OS settings are hardened. Which of the following is the BEST way to do this?
A. Use a vulnerability scanner.
B. Use a configuration compliance scanner.
C. Use a passive, in-line scanner.
D. Use a protocol analyzer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A Security Officer on a military base needs to encrypt several smart phones that will be going into the field.
Which of the following encryption solutions should be deployed in this situation?
A. Elliptic curve
B. One-time pad
C. 3DES
D. AES-256
Correct Answer: D

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How can I get a valid Cisco 300-075 study guide for passing the CCNP Collaboration 300-075 certification exam? Ciscoexampdf shares the latest and effective Cisco 300-075 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 300-075 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 300-075 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-075.html (522 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

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Latest Cisco 300-075 google drive

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This exam tests candidates seeking CCNP Collaboration on their ability for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a multisite environment.

It covers Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility.

The exam also describes the role of Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control and the Cisco Expressway Series and how they interact with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

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Latest updates Cisco 300-075 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route
when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q2

A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach
cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message “Not Enough Bandwidth” on their phone and hears a fast
busy tone. Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
D. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
Correct Answer: BF
Automated alternate routing (AAR) provides a mechanism to reroute calls through the PSTN or other network by using
an alternate number when Cisco Unified Communications Manager blocks a call due to insufficient location bandwidth.
With automated alternate routing, the caller does not need to hang up and redial the called party.

QUESTION 3
Which symbol is required for globalized call routing?
A. +
B. *
C. %
D. /
E. ;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default value for the Drop Ad Hoc Conference service parameter?
A. Never
B. When No On-Net Parties Remain in the Conference
C. When No Off-Net Parties Remain in the Conference
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference When Creator Leaves
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When configuring a secure SIP trunk, to which Cisco Unified Communications manager trust store must you upload the
Cisco VCS certificate?
A. TVS-trust
B. tomcat-trust
C. ipsec-trust
D. CallManager-trust
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When you configure TEHO for long-distance calls and use the local PSTN gateways as fallback, how many route
patterns do you require for a cluster with five sites that are located in different area codes?
A. 6 when using a local route group
B. 10 when not using a local route group
C. 5 when using a local route group
D. 15 when not using a local route group
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for
Windows.
SX20 System information:lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7

DX650 Configuration:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-1

MRGL:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-2

DP:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-3

Locations:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-4

AARG:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-5

CSS:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-6

Movie Failure:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-7

Movie Settings:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-8

A new DX650 IP phone with MAC address D0C7.8914.132D, IP address is 172.18.32.119 has been added to the Cisco
Unified Communications Manager, but is not registering properly. What is causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be default.
B. The DX650 is the incorrect calling search space.
C. The DX650 Phones does not support SIP.
D. The location Hub_None has not been activated.
E. The DX650\\’s MAC address is incorrect in the Cisco UCM.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
A presales engineer is working on a quote for a major customer and must evaluate how many Cisco VCS Expressway
traversal call licenses for which to plan.
Calls to and from which three routes must the engineer include in the tally? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. Cisco 9971 Endpoint
C. border controllers
D. gatekeeper
E. SIP trunk
F. VCS
Correct Answer: CDF
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/telepresence-video-communication-server-vcs/118872-technote-vcs-00.html

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q9

How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager advertise dn-block 1?
A. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:
B. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:1972555
C. 4XXX
D. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:+ 1972555
E. 19725554XXX
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about Zones on Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You can register endpoints to default zone.
B. Bandwidth for calls between endpoints in the same zone cannot be restricted.
C. A neighbor zone connects Cisco VCS to Cisco VCS Expressway for NAT, PAT, and firewall traversal.
D. Endpoints are associated to default subzone or any customized subzone depending on the IP address of the
endpoint.
E. A neighbor zone connects Cisco VCS Core to other systems via SIP or H.323.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
The network administrator at Enterprise X is creating the guidelines for a new IPT deployment consisting of a large
number of remote offices. Every user within Enterprise X is assigned a directory number of 5 digits. Which option might
cause an issue in a multisite deployment?
A. Overlapping DID ranges are allocated to each site.
B. The maximum number of IP phones are in use at each remote site.
C. MoH cannot be provided for the remote sites.
D. All media streams are necessarily routed through the central office for calls to establish correctly.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which route pattern is the best match in Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a dialed number of +1 412 555
1234?
A. \+1412.XXXXXXX
B. +1!
C. ^\+1412…….$
D. \+1.!
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An engineer must configure a new Audio Codec Preference list for a new site in their network. Which type of list does
this configuration establish?
A. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Locations
B. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Device Mobility Groups
C. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Device Pools
D. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Regions
Correct Answer: D

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300-160 DCID – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcid.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of data center infrastructure design pertaining to deployment requirements and options for network connectivity, infrastructure, storage network, compute connectivity and compute resource parameters.

Latest updates Cisco 300-160 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your client is a large financial institution that is subject to security regulations. They have asked you for the highest level
of traffic separation natively available on the Cisco Nexus 5500. Which answer is correct?
A. VDC
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. Subnet
E. Port Profile
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-160 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q2-1

QUESTION 3
What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose
two.)
A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.
B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.
C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.
D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.
E. Stop using redundant power supplies.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 6
Which three options does Cisco Data Mobility Manager provide? (Choose three.)
A. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during low traffic hours or minimize interference
B. brings the need for multiple migration solutions
C. moves from a smaller logical unit number to a larger LUN
D. manages all capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
E. manages all capabilities from CLI
F. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during high traffic hours or maximize interference
G. manages some capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
What is one example of a business requirement that drives the design of a newly installed data center?
A. power
B. cooling
C. resource utilization and provisioning
D. global availability
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You have a Cisco UCS B-Series chassis. To connect to a blade server by using a remote KVM console, you should
connect to the IP address of which component?
A. mgmt0
B. CIMC
C. IPMI
D. CMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which four options describe I/O Accelerator? (Choose four.)
A. is topology dependent
B. provides unified acceleration service
C. provides high availability and resiliency
D. provides load balancing
E. is transport agnostic
F. Each IOA engine provides 1-Gbps application throughput.
G. uses TCP
H. does not support multiple paths and PortChannels
Correct Answer: BCDE

QUESTION 10
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 11
Scenario
Review topology and screenshots, and then answer questions that validate your knowledge of
Cisco Nexus Switches.lead4pass 300-160 exam question q11

Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
Review the Exhibit associated with the question.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q11-1

Refer to the Topology in Exhibit 1. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All four links from the Cisco Nexus7000s to the Cisco Nexus 5000s are forwarding.
B. Multipath I/O from the Cisco UCS C200 servers to Fibre Channel storage is unavailable with this topology.
C. The Fabric Extenders are simultaneously active on the Cisco Nexus 5000s and Cisco Nexus 7000 switches.
D. The Fabric Extenders support FCoE.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option limits oversubscription at the data center core?
A. cost
B. broadcast
C. loop
D. congestion
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which option must be enabled to allow line-rate forwarding on a Fibre Channel port?
A. F port
B. TEport
C. dedicated mode
D. shared mode
E. E port
Correct Answer: C

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[PDF] Free Microsoft Azure az-203 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1ztjYdnVt1PNZR9LFC6Okh0EG-94LPVFf

Exam AZ-203: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-203

Candidates for this exam are Azure Developers who design and build cloud solutions such as applications and services. They participate in all phases of development, from solution design to development and deployment, to testing and maintenance. They partner with cloud solution architects, cloud DBAs, cloud administrators, and clients to implement the solution.

Candidates should be proficient in developing apps and services by using Azure tools and technologies, including storage, security, compute, and communications.

Candidates must have at least one year of experience developing scalable solutions through all phases of software development and be skilled in at least one cloud-supported programming language.

Latest updates Microsoft az-203 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

You develop an Azure web app. You monitor performance of the web app by using Application Insights. 

You need to ensure the cost for Application Insights does not exceed a preset budget. 

What should you do? 

A. Implement ingestions sampling using the Application Insights SDK. 

B. Set a daily cap for the Application Insights instance. 

C. Implement ingestion sampling using the Azure portal. 

D. Implement adaptive sampling using the Azure portal. 

E. Implement adaptive sampling using the Application Insights SDK. 

Correct Answer: E 

Sampling is an effective way to reduce charges and stay within your monthly quota. 

You can set sampling manually, either in the portal on the Usage and estimated costs page; or in the ASP.NET SDK in

the .config file; or in the Java SDK in the ApplicationInsights.xml file, to also reduce the network traffic. 

Adaptive sampling is the default for the ASP.NET SDK. Adaptive sampling automatically adjusts to the volume of

telemetry that your app sends. It operates automatically in the SDK in your web app so that telemetry traffic on the

network is 

reduced. 

Incorrect Answers: 

B: You can use the daily volume cap to limit the data collected. 

To change the daily cap, in the Configure section of your Application Insights resource, in the Usage and estimated

costs pane, select Daily Cap. 

References: 

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/sampling 

 

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT 

You have an app that stores player scores for an online game. The app stores data in Azure tables using a class named

PlayerScore as the table entity. The table is populated with 100,000 records. 

You are reviewing the following section of code that is intended to retrieve 20 records where the player score exceeds

15,000. (Line numbers are included for reference only.) lead4pass az-203 exam question q2

You have the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-1

You store customer information in an Azure Cosmos database. The following data already exists in the database:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-2

You develop the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-3

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-5

 

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Margie\\’s Travel is an international travel and bookings management service. The company is expanding into
restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing Azure Search for the restaurants listed in their solution.
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using the Azure Search .NET SDK.
Solution:
1.
Create a SearchIndexClient object to connect to the search index.
2.
Create a DataContainer that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
Create a DataSource instance and set its Container property to the DataContainer.
4.
Call the Documents.Suggest method of the SearchIndexClient and pass the DataSource.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use the following method:
1.
– Create a SearchIndexClient object to connect to the search index
2.
– Create an IndexBatch that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
– Call the Documents.Index method of the SearchIndexClient and pass the IndexBatch.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/search-howto-dotnet-sdk

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You need to configure Azure Cosmos DB.
Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-203 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q4-1

Box 1: Strong
When the consistency level is set to strong, the staleness window is equivalent to zero, and the clients are guaranteed
to read the latest committed value of the write operation.
Scenario: Changes to the Order data must reflect immediately across all partitions. All reads to the Order data must
fetch the most recent writes.
Note: You can choose from five well-defined models on the consistency spectrum. From strongest to weakest, the
models are: Strong, Bounded staleness, Session, Consistent prefix, Eventual
Box 2: SQL
Scenario: You identify the following requirements for data management and manipulation:
Order data is stored as nonrelational JSON and must be queried using Structured Query Language (SQL).

QUESTION 5
You develop a gateway solution for a public facing news API. The news API back end is implemented as a RESTful
service and uses an OpenAPI specification.
You need to ensure that you can access the news API by using an Azure API Management service instance.
Which Azure PowerShell command should you run?
A. Import-AzureRmApiManagementApi –Context $ApiMgmtContext –SpecificationFormat “Swagger” -SpecificationPath
$SwaggerPath –Path $Path
B. New-AzureRmApiManagementBackend -Context $ApiMgmtContext -Url $Url -Protocol http
C. New-AzureRmApiManagement –ResourceGroupName $ResourceGroup –Name $Name –Location $Location
–Organization $Org –AdminEmail $AdminEmail
D. New-AzureRmApiManagementBackendProxy –Url $ApiUrl
Correct Answer: D
New-AzureRmApiManagementBackendProxy creates a new Backend Proxy Object which can be piped when creating a
new Backend entity.
Example: Create a Backend Proxy In-Memory Object PS C:\>$secpassword = ConvertTo-SecureString
“PlainTextPassword” -AsPlainText -Force PS C:\>$proxyCreds = New-Object
System.Management.Automation.PSCredential (“foo”, $secpassword) PS C:\>$credential = New-
AzureRmApiManagementBackendProxy -Url “http://12.168.1.1:8080” -ProxyCredential $proxyCreds
PS C:\>$apimContext = New-AzureRmApiManagementContext -ResourceGroupName “Api-Default-WestUS”
-ServiceName “contoso”
PS C:\>$backend = New-AzureRmApiManagementBackend -Context $apimContext -BackendId 123 -Url
\\’https://contoso.com/awesomeapi\\’ -Protocol http -Title “first backend” -SkipCertificateChainValidation $true -Proxy
$credential Description “backend with proxy server” Creates a Backend Proxy Object and sets up Backend
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Import-AzureRmApiManagementApi cmdlet imports an Azure API Management API from a file or a URL in Web
Application Description Language (WADL), Web Services Description Language (WSDL), or Swagger format.
B: New-AzureRmApiManagementBackend creates a new backend entity in Api Management.
C: The New-AzureRmApiManagement cmdlet creates an API Management deployment in Azure API Management.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.apimanagement/new-azurermapimanagementbackendproxy?view=azurermps-6.13.0

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud -based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to add code at line PC32 in Processing.es to implement the GetCredentials method in the Processing class.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each
code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-203 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
You are creating a hazard notification system that has a single signaling server which triggers audio and visual alarms
to start and stop.
You implement Azure Service Bus to publish alarms. Each alarm controller uses Azure Service Bus to receive alarm
signals as part of a transaction. Alarm events must be recorded for audit purposes. Each transaction record must
include
information about the alarm type that was activated.
You need to implement a reply trail auditing solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the DeliveryCount property.
B. Assign the value of the hazard message SequenceNumber property to the DeliveryCount property.
C. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the SequenceNumber property.
D. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the CorrelationId property.
E. Assign the value of the hazard message SessionID property to the SequenceNumber property..
F. Assign the value of the hazard message SessionID property to the ReplyToSessionId property.
Correct Answer: DF
D: CorrelationId: Enables an application to specify a context for the message for the purposes of correlation; for
example, reflecting the MessageId of a message that is being replied to.
F: ReplyToSessionId: This value augments the ReplyTo information and specifies which SessionId should be set for the
reply when sent to the reply entity.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: DeliveryCount
Number of deliveries that have been attempted for this message. The count is incremented when a message lock
expires, or the message is explicitly abandoned by the receiver. This property is read-only.
C, E: SequenceNumber
The sequence number is a unique 64-bit integer assigned to a message as it is accepted and stored by the broker and
functions as its true identifier. For partitioned entities, the topmost 16 bits reflect the partition identifier. Sequence
numbers
monotonically increase and are gapless. They roll over to 0 when the 48-64 bit range is exhausted. This property is read-
only.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-messages-payloads

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You need to configure retries in the LoadUserDetails function in the Database class without impacting user experience.
What code should you insert on line DB07?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-203 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q9-1

Box 1: Policy
RetryPolicy retry = Policy
.Handle()
.Retry(3);
The above example will create a retry policy which will retry up to three times if an action fails with an exception handled
by the Policy.
Box 2: WaitAndRetryAsync(3,i => TimeSpan.FromMilliseconds(100* Math.Pow(2,i-1)));
A common retry strategy is exponential backoff: this allows for retries to be made initially quickly, but then at
progressively longer intervals, to avoid hitting a
subsystem with repeated frequent calls if the subsystem may be struggling.
Example:
Policy
.Handle()
.WaitAndRetry(3, retryAttempt =>
TimeSpan.FromSeconds(Math.Pow(2, retryAttempt))
);
References:
https://github.com/App-vNext/Polly/wiki/Retry

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You are implementing an order processing system. A point of sale application publishes orders to topics in an Azure
Service Bus queue. The label property for the topic includes the following data:lead4pass az-203 exam question q10

The system has the following requirements for subscriptions:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q10-1

You need to implement filtering and maximize throughput while evaluating filters.Which filter types should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate filter types to the correct subscriptions. Each
filter type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q10-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q10-3

FutureOrders: SQLFilter HighPriortyOrders: CorrelationFilter CorrelationID only InternationalOrders: SQLFilter Country
NOT USA requires an SQL Filter HighQuantityOrders: SQLFilter Need to use relational operators so an SQL Filter is
needed. AllOrders: No Filter SQL Filter: SQL Filters – A SqlFilter holds a SQL-like conditional expression that is
evaluated in the broker against the arriving messages\\’ user-defined properties and system properties. All system
properties must be prefixed with sys. in the conditional expression. The SQL-language subset for filter conditions tests
for the existence of properties (EXISTS), as well as for null-values (IS NULL), logical NOT/AND/OR, relational
operators, simple numeric arithmetic, and simple text pattern matching with LIKE. Correlation Filters – A CorrelationFilter
holds a set of conditions that are matched against one or more of an arriving message\\’s user and system properties. A
common use is to match against the CorrelationId property, but the application can also choose to match against
ContentType, Label, MessageId, ReplyTo, ReplyToSessionId, SessionId, To, and any user-defined properties. A match
exists when an arriving message\\’s value for a property is equal to the value specified in the correlation filter. For string
expressions, the comparison is case-sensitive. When specifying multiple match properties, the filter combines them as a
logical AND condition, meaning for the filter to match, all conditions must match. Boolean filters – The TrueFilter and
FalseFilter either cause all arriving messages (true) or none of the arriving messages (false) to be selected for the
subscription. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/topic-filters

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are developing a Docker/Go using Azure App Service Web App for Containers. You plan to run the container in an
App Service on Linux. You identify a Docker container image to use.
None of your current resource groups reside in a location that supports Linux. You must minimize the number of
resource groups required.
You need to create the application and perform an initial deployment.
Which three Azure CLI commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate
commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-203 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q11-1

You can host native Linux applications in the cloud by using Azure Web Apps. To create a Web App for Containers, you
must run Azure CLI commands that create a group, then a service plan, and finally the web app itself.
Step 1: az group create
In the Cloud Shell, create a resource group with the az group create command.
Step 2: az appservice plan create
In the Cloud Shell, create an App Service plan in the resource group with the az appservice plan create command.
Step 3: az webapp create
In the Cloud Shell, create a web app in the myAppServicePlan App Service plan with the az webapp create command.
Don\\’t forget to replace with a unique app name, and with your Docker ID.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/mt-mt/azure/app-service/containers/quickstart-docker-go?view=sql-server-ver15

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A company develops a series of mobile games. All games use a single leaderboard service. You have the following
requirements:
Code should be scalable and allow for growth.
Each record must consist of a playerld, gameld. score, and time played.
When users reach a new high score, the system will save the new score using the SaveScore function below.
Each game is assigned an Id based on the series title.
You have the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)lead4pass az-203 exam question q12

You store customer information in an Azure Cosmos database. The following data already exists in the database:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q12-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q12-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q12-3

 

QUESTION 13
You must implement Application Insights instrumentation capabilities utilizing the Azure Mobile Apps SDK to provide
meaningful analysis of user interactions with a molbile app.
You need to capture the data required to implement the Usage Analytics feature of Application Insights.
Which three data values should you capture? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Trace
B. Session Id
C. Exception
D. User Id
E. Events
Correct Answer: ADE
Application Insights is a service for monitoring the performance and usage of your apps. This module allows you to send
telemetry of various kinds (events, traces, etc.) to the Application Insights service where your data can be visualized in
the Azure Portal.
Application Insights manages the ID of a session for you.
References: https://github.com/microsoft/ApplicationInsights-Android

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Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-412.aspx

Skills measured: This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Configure and Manage High Availability
  • Configure File and Storage Solutions
  • Implement Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
  • Configure Network Services
  • Configure the Active Directory Infrastructure
  • Configure Access and Information Protection Solutions

Who should take this exam?

This exam is part three of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to administer a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to perform the advanced configuring tasks required to deploy, manage, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure, such as fault tolerance, certificate services, and identity federation. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining,
and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-412 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your company has a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The contoso.com domain contains three member
servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
In the main office, you configure Server1 as a file server that uses BranchCache.
In the branch office, you configure Server2 and Server3 as BranchCache hosted cache servers.
You are creating a Group Policy for the branch office site.
Which two Group Policy settings should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate two settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q1-1

To use Group Policy to configure clients for hosted cache mode Step x: In the Turn on BranchCache dialog box, click
Enabled, and then click OK. Step x+1: In the Group Policy Management Editor console, ensure that BranchCache is still
selected, and then in the details pane double-click Set BranchCache Hosted Cache mode. The Set BranchCache
Hosted Cache mode dialog box opens. Reference: Use Group Policy to configure domain member clients for hosted
cache mode http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649153(v=ws.10).aspx

 

QUESTION 2
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and
Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 and Server2 have different processor models from the same manufacturer.
On Server1, you plan to create a virtual machine named VM1. Eventually, VM1 will be exported to Server2.
You need to ensure that when you import VM1 to Server2, you can start VM1 from saved snapshots.
What should you configure on VM1?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q2

Correct Answer: lead4pass 70-412 exam question q2-1

Use the Processor Compatibility Mode only in cases where VMs will migrate from one Hyper-V-enabled processor type
to another within the same vendor processor family. Reference: When to Use Processor Compatibility Mode to Migrate
Virtual Machines technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/gg299590.aspx

 

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains domain controllers that
run either Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2008 R2, or Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to implement a new Active Directory forest. The new forest will be used for testing and will be isolated from the
production network.
In the test network, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server1 as a new domain controller in a new forest named contoso.test.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The functional level of the forest and of the domain must be the same as that of contoso.com.
Server1 must provide name resolution services for contoso.test.
What should you do? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q3-1

Set the forest function level and the Domain functional level both to Windows Server 2003.
Also check Domain Name (DNS) server.
Note:
* When you deploy AD DS, set the domain and forest functional levels to the highest value that your environment can
support. This way, you can use as many AD DS features as possible. For example, if you are sure that you will never
add domain controllers that run Windows Server 2003 to the domain or forest, select the Windows Server 2008
functional level during the deployment process. However, if you might retain or add domain controllers that run Windows
Server 2003, select the Windows Server 2003 functional level.
* You can set the domain functional level to a value that is higher than the forest functional level. For example, if the
forest functional level is Windows Server 2003, you can set the domain functional level to Windows Server 2003or
higher.
Reference: Understanding Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) Functional Levels


QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers
named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server
role installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q4

You add a third server named Server3 to the network. Server3 has Intel processors.
You need to move VM3 and VM6 to Server3. The solution must minimize downtime on the virtual machines.
Which method should you use to move each virtual machine?
To answer, select the appropriate method for each virtual machine in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q4-2

VM3: export/import is the only option due to different processor manufacturers
VM6: Live migration can be used as both have Intel CPU\\’s
Live Storage Migration requires same processor manufacturers
Live migration requires same processor manufacturers
Incorrect Answers:
Quick migration has downtime
Reference: Migrating Virtual Machines and Storage Overview
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj628158.aspx

 

QUESTION 5
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the domain controllers
configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q5

The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can deploy a Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller to contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-ADDomainMode cmdlet.
B. Raise the domain functional level.
C. Demote DC1 to a member server.
D. Add Admin1 to the Schema Admins Group.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2216997andseqNum=3

 

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two DHCP servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 fails.
You discover that DHCP clients can no longer receive IP address leases.
You need to ensure that the DHCP clients receive IP addresses immediately.
What should you configure from the View/Edit Failover Relationship settings? To answer, select the appropriate setting
in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q6-1

A manual failover will have to occur by clicking on the Change to partner down button (the partner has to actually be
unavailable to click this button).
Note: You can manually change the state of a server which is running in communication interrupted to partner down
using DHCP MMC or DHCP PowerShell.
In MMC, go to IPv4->Properties, go to Failover tab, select the specific failover relationship and click edit. You will see
“Change to partner down” button on the edit page. This button is enabled when the server is running in communication
interrupted state.
Reference: DHCP Failover Hot-Standby Mode
http://blogs.technet.com/b/teamdhcp/archive/2012/09/03/dhcp-failover-hot-standby-mode.aspx

 

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers
named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in
an NLB cluster named Cluster1. Both servers connect to the same switch.
Cluster1 hosts a secure web Application named WebApp1. WebApp1 saves user state information in a central
database.
You need to ensure that the connections to WebApp1 are distributed evenly between the nodes. The solution must
minimize port flooding.
What should you configure? To answer, configure the appropriate affinity and the appropriate mode for Cluster1 in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server1
and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Federation Services server role
installed.
Server2 is a file server.
Your company introduces a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy.
You need to ensure that users can use a personal device to access domain resources by using Single Sign-On (SSO)
while they are connected to the internal network.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Enable the Device Registration Service in Active Directory.
B. Publish the Device Registration Service by using a Web Application Proxy.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for the Device Registration Service.
D. Create and configure a sync share on Server2.
E. Install the Work Folders role service on Server2.
Correct Answer: AC
*
Workplace Join leverages a feature included in the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) Role in Windows
Server 2012 R2, called Device Registration Service (DRS). DRS provisions a device object in Active Directory when a
device is Workplace Joined. Once the device object is in Active Directory, attributes of that object can be retrieved and
used to provide conditional access to resources and applications. The device identity is represented by a certificate
which is set on the personal device by DRS when the device is Workplace Joined.
*
In Windows Server 2012 R2, AD FS and Active Directory Domain Services have been extended to comprehend the
most popular mobile devices and provide conditional access to enterprise resources based on user+device
combinations and access policies. With these policies in place, you can control access based on users, devices,
locations, and access times.
Reference: BYOD Basics: Enabling the use of Consumer Devices using Active Directory in Windows Server 2012 R2


QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2. Both servers have the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature installed.
You have a support technician named Tech1. Tech1 is a member of the IPAM Administrators group on Server1 and
Server2. You need to ensure that Tech1 can use Server Manager on Server1 to manage IPAM on Server2. To which
group
on Server2 should you add Tech1? To answer, select the appropriate group in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10-1

If you are accessing the IPAM server remotely using Server Manager IPAM client RSAT, then you must be a member of
the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers group on the IPAM server, in addition to being a member of the appropriate IPAMsecurity
group (or local Administrators group).
References: Understand and Troubleshoot IP Address Management (IPAM) in Windows Server “8” Beta.
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. The NLB cluster contains an application
named App1 that is accessed by using the name appl.contoso.com.
The NLB cluster has the port rules configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10-2

 

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains one domain. The domain
contains the domain controllers shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q11

You verify the site links as shown in the following output.

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q11-1

You need to ensure that User1 replicates to all the domain controllers. What should you do?
A. Enable the Bridge all site links option.
B. Decrease the Cost value on Link2.
C. Add Site3 to Link1.
D. Run repadmin /synca11/A on DC1.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server 2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have
the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks for VM1
are stored in D: \VM1.
You shut down VM1 on Server1.
You copy D:\VM1 to D:\VM1 on Server2.
You need to start VM1 on Server2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMIntialReplication cmdlet.
B. Create a new virtual machine on Server2 and attach the VHD from VM1 to the new virtual machine.
C. From Hyper-V Manager, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-IscsiVirtualDisk cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
Starting in Windows Server 2012, you no longer need to export a virtual machine to be able to import it. You can simply
copy a virtual machine and its associated files to the new host, and then use the Import Virtual Machine wizard to
specify the location of the files. This registers the virtual machine with Hyper-V and makes it available for use. In
addition to the wizard, the Hyper-V module for Windows PowerShell includes cmdlets for importing virtual machines. For
more information, see Import-VM
Reference: Overview of exporting and importing a virtual machine

 

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers
named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover
cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a Clustered Shared Volume (CSV).
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 stores data in the file
system.
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-ClusterServerRole
B. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole
C. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
D. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
Correct Answer: C
Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
Configure high availability for an application that was not originally designed to run in a failover cluster.
If you run an application as a Generic Application, the cluster software will start the application, then periodically query
the operating system to see whether the application appears to be running. If so, it is presumed to be online, and will
not
be restarted or failed over.
References: Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee460976.aspx

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