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The Best Cisco APE 648-244 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which one is not a parameter to generate the License MAC?
A. NIC duplex
B. IP mask
C. SMTP location
D. time zone
E. SNMP community
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to apply a new identity to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher?
A. utils import afg
B. utils import config
C. utils import xml
D. utils ident new
E. utils ident config
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two applications support the New Identity feature? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In a 100-user Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, what is the utilization of the CPU and memory during business hours in normal operation?
A. 10 percent
B. 17 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 31 percent
E. 37 percent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
When monitoring a host server’s resource utilization, what is the default timeframe to refresh the data in the utilization view?
A. real time
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. manual refresh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command is used to power down a Cisco Unified Communications applications server?
A. utils server shutdown
B. utils system close
C. utils system shutdown
D. config server shutdown
E. config system shutdown
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
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The Best Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
What is the primary purpose of stateful pattern recognition in Cisco IPS networks?
A. mitigating man-in-the-middle attacks
B. using multi packet inspection across all protocols to identify vulnerability-based attacks and to thwart attacks that hide within a data stream
C. detecting and preventing MAC address spoofing in switched environments
D. identifying Layer 2 ARP attacks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two features does Cisco Security Manager provide? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration and policy deployment before device discovery
B. Health and performance monitoring
C. Event management and alerting
D. Command line menu for troubleshooting
E. Ticketing management and tracking
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Your company is replacing a high-availability pair of Cisco ASA 5550 firewalls with the newer Cisco ASA 5555X models. Due to budget constraints, one Cisco ASA 5550 will be replaced at a time.
Which statement about the minimum requirements to set up stateful failover between these two firewalls is true?
A. You must install the USB failover cable between the two Cisco ASAs and provide a 1 Gigabit Ethernetinterface for state exchange.
B. It is not possible to use failover between different Cisco ASA models.
C. You must have at least 1 Gigabit Ethernet interface between the two Cisco ASAs for state exchange.
D. You must use two dedicated interfaces. One link is dedicated to state exchange and the other link isforheartbeats.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access list east?
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. 300-206 dumps Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which component does Cisco ASDM require on the host Cisco ASA 5500 Series or Cisco PIX security appliance?
A. a DES or 3DES license
B. a NAT policy server
C. a SQL database
D. a Kerberos key
E. a digital certificate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What are three attributes that can be applied to a user account with RBAC? (Choose three.)
A. domain
B. password
C. ACE tag
D. user roles
E. VDC group tag
F. expiry date
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 20
A switch is being configured at a new location that uses statically assigned IP addresses. Which will ensure that ARP inspection works as expected?
A. Configure the ‘no-dhcp’ keyword at the end of the ip arp inspection command
B. Enable static arp inspection using the command ‘ip arp inspection static vlan vlan- number
C. Configure an arp access-list and apply it to the ip arp inspection command
D. Enable port security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
At which firewall severity level will debugs appear on a Cisco ASA?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network printer has a DHCP server service that cannot be disabled. How can a layer 2 switch be configured to prevent the printer from causing network issues?
A. Remove the ip helper-address
B. Configure a Port-ACL to block outbound TCP port 68
C. Configure DHCP snooping
D. Configure port-security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You have explicitly added the line deny ipv6 any log to the end of an IPv6 ACL on a router interface. Which two ICMPv6 packet types must you explicitly allow to enable traffic to traverse the interface? (Choose two.)
A. router solicitation
B. router advertisement
C. neighbor solicitation
D. neighbor advertisement
E. redirect
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 24
Which two device types can Cisco Prime Security Manager manage in Multiple Device mode? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ESA
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco WSA
D. Cisco ASA CX
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? 300-206 dumps (Choose two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
When it is configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the switchport port-security maximum command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 27
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
Which command enables the HTTP server daemon for Cisco ASDM access?
A. http server enable
B. http server enable 443
C. crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024
D. no http server enable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which ASA feature is used to keep track of suspected attackers who create connections to too many hosts or ports?
A. complex threat detection
B. scanning threat detection
C. basic threat detection
D. advanced threat detection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which command sets the source IP address of the NetFlow exports of a device?
A. ip source flow-export
B. ip source netflow-export
C. ip flow-export source
D. ip netflow-export source
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
You have installed a web server on a private network. Which type of NAT must you implement to enable access to the web server for public Internet users?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. network object NAT
D. twice NAT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
When you configure a Botnet Traffic Filter on a Cisco firewall, what are two optional tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the use of dynamic databases.
B. Add static entries to the database.
C. Enable DNS snooping.
D. Enable traffic classification and actions.
E. Block traffic manually based on its syslog information.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 34
Which two configurations are the minimum needed to enable EIGRP on the Cisco ASA appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the EIGRP routing process and specify the AS number.
B. Define the EIGRP default-metric.
C. Configure the EIGRP router ID.
D. Use the neighbor command(s) to specify the EIGRP neighbors.
E. Use the network command(s) to enable EIGRP on the Cisco ASA interface(s).
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 35
What is the default behavior of an access list on a Cisco ASA?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. It will have no affect until applied to an interface, tunnel-group or other traffic flow.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which three statements about the software requirements for a firewall failover configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. The firewalls must be in the same operating mode.
B. The firewalls must have the same major and minor software version.
C. The firewalls must be in the same context mode.
D. The firewalls must have the same major software version but can have different minor versions.
E. The firewalls can be in different context modes.
F. The firewalls can have different Cisco AnyConnect images.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 37
Which two configurations are necessary to enable password-less SSH login to an IOS router? 300-206 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Enter a copy of the administrator’s public key within the SSH key-chain
B. Enter a copy of the administrator’s private key within the SSH key-chain
C. Generate a 512-bit RSA key to enable SSH on the router
D. Generate an RSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
E. Generate a 512-bit ECDSA key to enable SSH on the router
F. Generate a ECDSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 38
When configuring security contexts on the Cisco ASA, which three resource class limits can be set using a rate limit? (Choose three.)
A. address translation rate
B. Cisco ASDM session rate
C. connections rate
D. MAC-address learning rate (when in transparent mode)
E. syslog messages rate
F. stateful packet inspections rate
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 39
What is a required attribute to configure NTP authentication on a Cisco ASA?
A. Key ID
B. IPsec
C. AAA
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on interfaces?
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 2156 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Correct Answer: D

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The Best Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? 300-135 dumps (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages.
What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
SIA routes are due to the fact that reply packets are not received. This could be caused by a router which is unable to send reply packets. The router could have reached the limit of its capacity, or it could be malfunctioning.
Notes: If a router does not receive a reply to all outstanding queries within 3 minutes, the route goes to the stuck in active (SIA) state. The router then resets the neighbors that fail to reply by going active on all routes known through that neighbor, and it re-advertises all routes to that neighbor.

QUESTION 20
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements regarding documentation would not be considered a helpful step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Use the Cisco Auto Configuration tool.
B. Use the Cisco Rollback feature.
C. Automate documentation.
D. Schedule documentation checks.
E. Use the Cisco Configuration Archive tool.
F. Require documentation prior to a ticket being closed out.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Given the multicast IP address of 224.193.5.10, what would the corresponding multicast MAC address be?
A. 00-00-0c-c0-05-0a
B. 00-00-0c-cl-05-0a
C. 01-00-5e-00-00-0c
D. 01-00-5e-41-05-0a
E. 00-00-0c-01-00-5e
F. 01-00-5e-cl-05-0a
Correct Answer: F

Explanation:
First three octets are 01-00-05e for every single multicast address.Las three octets are the hexadecimal version of the las three octets of the IP address, in this case 193.5.10 is translated to c1-05-0a.

QUESTION 23
Which of the following are common issues that should be considered when establishing or troubleshooting site-to-site VPNs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. User authentication
B. Overlapping IP address space
C. GRE or IPsec configuration
D. MTU size
E. VPN client software
F. Authentication server configured ly
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24
Which of the following topology situations would be a qood candidate for configuring DMVPN?
A. Extranet VPN
B. Managed overlay VPN topology
C. Hub-and-spoke VPN topology
D. Central-site VPN topology
E. Full mesh VPN topology
F. Remote-access VPN topology
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a valid reason for a packet to be punted?
A. The TCAM has reached capacity
B. An unknown destination MAC address
C. A packet being discarded due to a security violation
D. A Telnet packet from a session being initiated with the switch
E. Routing protocols sending broadcast traffic
F. A packet belonging to a GRE tunnel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is in a standby state. 300-135 dumps Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Preferred server
A router can be configured to prefer an NTP source over another. A preferred server’s responses are discarded only if they vary dramatically from the other time sources.
Otherwise, the preferred server is used for synchronization without consideration of the other time sources. Preferred servers are usually specified when they are known to be extremely accurate. To specify a preferred server, use the prefer keyword appended to the ntp server command. The following example tells the router to prefer TimeServerOne over
TimeServerTwo:
Router#config terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerOne prefer
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerTwo
Router(config)#^Z
Reference: Hardening Cisco Routers By Thomas Akin February 2002 0-596-00166-5,Chapter 10, NTP.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is an accurate description of the command copy startupconfig ftp://kevin:[email protected]?
A. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to RAM.
B. The command is not valid on a Cisco router.
C. The configuration file in RAM is copied to an FTP server.
D. The configuration file in NVRAM is copied to an FTP server.
E. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to NVRAM.
F. The configuration will be copied from NVRAM to an FTP server with a filename of Kevin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Whichof the following are valid modes of packet switching on most routers?(Choose all that apply.)
A. Cisco Express Fonvarding
B. FIB switching
C. Cache switching
D. Optimized switching
E. Process switching
F. Fast switching
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 30
What can you modify in an extended ping?
A. Value
B. Strict
C. Record
D. Timestamp
E. TTL
Correct Answer: BCD

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The Best Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Drag Drop
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QUESTION 2
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QUESTION 6
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300-115 dumps Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 12
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Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 13
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 14
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PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter. 300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 15
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PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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QUESTION 16
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STP Timers
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300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 17
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QUESTION 19
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QUESTION 20
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Correct Answer:
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The Best Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-887 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 2 Mbps of bandwidth for outgoing FTP traffic on interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 on Cisco IOS XR. Which method accomplishes this configuration?
A. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
B. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
C. configure terminal
access-list 100 permit ip any any eq 21
policy-map POLICY_1
match ip access-list 100
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
D. configure terminal
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? 642-887 dumps (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress, classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Which configuration fulfills the requirement of configuring LDP with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding on a router with 5 minutes time to hold the forwarding table information and 1 minute retry timer value for an LDP connection?
A. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
B. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
C. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
D. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
Cisco MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is enabled?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. 642-887 dumps Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 10 Mbps priority queue for traffic matched by class-map VOICE_CLASS on Cisco IOS XR. Which policy must be applied for outgoing traffic on interface FastEthernet 0/0/1?
A. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
B. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
priority percent 10
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
C. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 1000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
D. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10 Mbps
exceed-action shape
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

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Best Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q25)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 3
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources? 400-201 dumps
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior?
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS?
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. 400-201 dumps Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The NOC engineer noticed that the R2 router system clock is not updated and synchronized to the NTP server that is configured on the R10 router. What is the issue?
A. The access list NTP_Clients is missing.
B. The access group is misconfigured.
C. The maximum number of peers and client associations is exceeded.
D. The authentication key is mismatched.
E. The PE2 router should be configured as an NTP peer instead of as a client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that insures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. TE FRR
B. IP FRR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. NSR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop the MPLS inter ASVPN options on left to right.
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-201 dumps
QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
DND QOS Characteristics on the left onto its correct QOS Mechanism on the right :
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
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High Quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two) 100-105 dumps
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With the configuration above, when we type andquot;do show vlanandquot; we would not see VLAN 10 in the VLAN database because it has not been created yet.

QUESTION 6
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr.

QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle:
Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network security plan i.

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct.

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.
100-105 dumps
Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. 100-105 dumps How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? 100-105 dumps (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation/Reference:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers.
In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands.

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2.

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70-246 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company has a private cloud that contains a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains a Service Manager infrastructure and an Orchestrator infrastructure. You plan to configure the private cloud to meet the following requirements:
Integrate runbooks to Service Manager requests.
Automate administration tasks by using runbooks.
Provide end users with the ability to perform administrative tasks.
You need to configure the private cloud to meet the requirements.
What should you do from Service Manager?
A. Register the Orchestrator Integration Packs.
B. Create an Exception Management Workflow.
C. Register a data source.
D. Select the sync folder for the Orchestrator connector.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Configuration Manager is an add-in for System Center 2012 – Orchestrator. It enables you to automate actions within Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, such as software and update deployment. In addition, it allows you create and modify collections. With this integration pack, you can also create workflows that interact with and transfer information to the integration packs for System Center Service Manager, System Center Data Protection Manager, System Center Operations Manager, and System Center Virtual Machine Manager. Configuring the System Center 2012 – Service Manager Connections A connection establishes a reusable link between Orchestrator and a Service Manager Server. You can create as many connections as you need to specify links to multiple servers. You can also create multiple connections to the same server to allow for differences in security permissions for different user accounts.

QUESTION 2
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Orchestrator, System Center 2012 Operations Manager, and System Center 2012 Service Manager infrastructure.
You discover that a service on a server repeatedly stops. You need to configure a solution to remediate the recurring issue automatically. What should you do?
A. From Service Manager, create an incident template.
B. From Service Manager, configure an incident event workflow.
C. From Operations Manager, configure the CI connector.
D. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
“You need to configure a solution to remediate the recurring issue automatically” Incident workflows are for Service Manager where fx the service desk can apply an incident template.

QUESTION 3
Your company has a private cloud that contains a System Center 2012 Service Manager instance.
Service Manager has the Self-Service Portal installed. You create a service offering that contains a single request offering. The service offering provides logged-on users with the ability to add their user account automatically to a group named ServiceGroup1. 70-246 dumps The company’s security policy requires that an administrator named Admin1 must approve all requests for group membership change You need to configure the infrastructure to meet the requirements of the company’s security policy.
What should you modify?
A. the service offering
B. the service request template
C. the request offering
D. the Service Offering Category list
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
For approval you need to add a Review Activity to the Service Request Template at the Activity tab.
Marcel Zehner wrote a good blog post about this:
News in SCSM12 (Beta) #2 – Service Requests
Hope this helps.

QUESTION 4
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. The network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
Operations Manager monitors a server named Operations1. Operations1 has a computer account in an organizational unit (OU) name ServerOU1. You create a group named GP1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-246 dumps
You create a rule named OMRule1 that generates an alert when an error is added to the Application log. You target OMRule1 to GP1. You discover that alerts fail to be generated when errors are added to the Application log on Operations1. You need to ensure that an alert is generated when an error is added to the Application log on Operations1. What should you modify?
A. the target of OMRulel1
B. the dynamic membership of GP1
C. the category of OMRule1
D. the explicit membership of GP1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
How does a rule get to an agent?
For any particular rule/monitor, OpsMgr will enumerate all instances of the target class and apply the rule to each. If there are no instances of the target class on a particular agent, then the rule will do nothing. It’s that simple. If I can’t target groups, why are they listed when I select a target for a rule? Groups are classes just like any other. They’re singleton classes where the class and the instance are one and the same, but they are classes nonetheless which is why they show up in the list with all other classes. There are really very few circumstances where you will target a rule at a group though. What if I do target a group? You can apply a rule/monitor directly to a group, but it will execute against the group object itself. OpsMgr will not enumerate members of the group and apply the rule to each. Any rules targeted at groups will actually operate on the Root Management Server since groups have no host and unhosted objects are managed by the RMS. How do I target some group of objects then? To the specific question of how to get a particular rule/monitor to a subset of components, you have two basic options. Let’s say for example, you have a particular subset of web sites that you need a particular rule to apply. You could target that rule at the IIS 2003 Web Site class for example, but that would apply the rule to all instances of that class. It would probably apply to sites that you didn’t want. 70-246 dumps Option 1 would be to create a new class and target the rule at the class. In the case of an IIS site, this would mean that you would need to go to the Authoring Console or raw XML and create a new class and discovery. That’s a more advanced solution that most customers will do and probably overkill anyway. Option 2 is the create a rule target at the whole class and disable it. Create a group with the sites you want and create an override for that group to enable your rule. This might sound like a workaround, but it’s a completely valid solution. How do I know if I’m selecting the right target? The easiest method to validate you are using a target that actually has instances is to use the Discovered Inventory view in the Operations Console prior to creating your rule/monitor. In the Actions pane is an option called “Change target type…” that will bring up the same Select a Target Type dialog box that you see when you select the target for a rule/monitor. This view will list all instances of the target class you select. You can validate which agents have an instance of that class and how many instances each has. If there are no instances listed, then the rule isn’t going to do anything. If there are instances, then you not only be confident that the rule/monitor will execute on the agent, but you can also view the properties of the instance that will be accessible to any rules/monitors targeted at it.
70-246 dumps
QUESTION 5
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. The network contains two network segments that are separated by a firewall. You have a management server named Server1. You create a discovery rule and configure the rule to discover SNMP devices. You discover that only the devices on the network segment that contains Server1 are discovered. You need to ensure that the devices supporting SNMP on both network segments are discovered. Which firewall port or ports should you allow on the firewall?
A. UDP 161
B. TCP 161 and UDP 22
C. UDP 5723 and UDP 5724
D. TCP 162
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
SNMP uses the default UDP port 161 for general SNMP messages and UDP port 162 for SNMP trap messages.

QUESTION 6
The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2008 R2.
The private cloud contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-246 dumps
The network segments are separated by a firewall. All of the TCP ports from 1 to 1024 are allowed on the firewall. You need to ensure that Server1 can send security events to Server2. What should you do?
A. From the firewall, allow TCP 51909 from Network1 to Network2.
B. From the firewall, allow TCP 5723 from Network1 to Network2.
C. Deploy an Operations Manager gateway server.
D. Deploy an SMTP smart host.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
ACS Forwarders Separated from the ACS Collector by a Firewall Because of the limited communication between an ACS forwarder and an ACS collector you only need to open the inbound TCP port 51909 on a firewall to enable an ACS forwarder, separated from your network by a firewall, to reach the ACS collector.

QUESTION 7
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains an Operations Manager infrastructure and a Service Manager infrastructure. 70-246 dumps You need to configure Service Manager to create incidents automatically based on Operations Manager alerts. Which object should you create from the Service Manager Console?
A. a subscription
B. an incident event workflow
C. a connector
D. a queue
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) –> System Center Service Manager(SCSM) CI Connector

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains an Orchestrator infrastructure and a Service Manager infrastructure. You need to automate user account provisioning for the Self-Service Portal. The solution must ensure that new user accounts are approved by a member of the human resources department. You configure the Orchestrator connector. Which five actions should you perform next? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area.)
70-246 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-246 dumps
Explanation:
70-246 dumps
1. Create Runbook Automated Activity Template
2. Extend service request class
3. Create Service Request template using the new Class and include the Runbook Automated Activity Template.
4. Create the Service Request Offering.

QUESTION 9
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. A server named VMM1 hosts the System Center 2012 Service Manager management server. A server named Server2 hosts the System Center 2012 Orchestrator management server. You plan to use a runbook named Book1 to update the status of Service Manager incidents. You need to ensure that you can create Book1, and then reference the runbook in Service Manager. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. From the Service Manager Console, add an incident event workflow.
B. From the Service Manager Shell, run the Set-SCDWJobSchedule cmdlet.
C. From the Orchestrator Deployment Manager, register the Integration Pack for System Center Service Manager.
D. From the Service Manager Console, create an Orchestrator connector.
E. From the System Center 2012 Orchestrator Runbook designer, create a connection.
F. From the Service Manager Shell, run the Enable-SCDWJobSchedule cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C,D,E

Explanation:
Install the integration pack for SCSM on Orchestrator and configure the connection settings (SCSM server name, User, Password) Create a new runbook First activity -> “Monitor Object” of SCSM integration pack -> Incident Class -> On Update -> Filter “Support Group” not equal “Tier 1” Add 6 “Send Email” activities -> 6 different recipients -> add the text in each mail body Link all 6 “Send Email” activities with the first “Monitor Object” activity On each link delete the default rule “On success” Add a new criteria -> Choose the “Support Group” from the data bus ->criteria of the first link “Support Group” equals “Tier 2” Do the same with the other Links and Support Groups.

QUESTION 10
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. 70-246 dumps The infrastructure has the System Center 2012 Service Manager Self-Service Portal installed. You create a new service offering. You need to ensure that only three users named Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 can access the service offering.
What should you do?
A. Add the service offering and the request offering to a Service Manager group, and then create a Run As Account.
B. Add the Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 configuration items to a Service Manager group, and then create a Run As Account.
C. Add the service offering and the request offering to a Service Manager group, and then create a User Role.
D. Add the Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 configuration items to a Service Manager group, and then create a User Role.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
With Role based security scoping in SCSM there is the possibility to configure a controlled environment for different service roles. A SCSM role profile is a configuration set to define access to objects, views in the console, operations they can perform and members of the role (AD User/Group).

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION 2
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.

QUESTION 3
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend which changes must be implemented to the network before you can deploy the new web application.
What should you include in the recommendation? 070-413 dumps
A. Change the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Upgrade the DNS servers to Windows Server 2012.
C. Change the functional level of both the domains to Windows Server 2008 R2.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Scenario:
The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.
The company is migrating to Windows Server 2012.

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations. Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
* The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature distributes traffic across several servers by using the TCP/IP networking protocol. By combining two or more computers that are running applications into a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-critical servers.

QUESTION 7
You are planning the migration of research.contoso.com.
You need to identify which tools must be used to perform the migration.
Which tools should you identify?
A. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
B. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) and Microsoft Federation Gateway
C. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
* Scenario:
All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com. two domain controllers for the research.contoso.com domain. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution for DHCP logging. The solution must meet the technical requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Event subscriptions
B. IP Address Management (IPAM)
C. DHCP audit logging
D. DHCP filtering
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: A central log of the IP address leases and the users associated to those leases must be created.
* Feature description
IPAM in Windows Server 2012 is a new built-in framework for discovering, monitoring, auditing, and managing the IP address space used on a corporate network. IPAM provides for administration and monitoring of servers running Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name Service (DNS). IPAM includes components for:
– Automatic IP address infrastructure discover)’: IPAM discovers domain controllers, DHCP servers, and DNS servers in the domains you choose. You can enable or disable management of these servers by IPAM.
– Custom IP address space display, reporting, and management: The display of IP addresses is highly customizable and detailed tracking and utilization data is available. 070-413 dumps IPv4 and IPv6 address space is organized into IP address blocks, IP address ranges, and individual IP addresses. IP addresses are assigned built-in or user-defined fields that can be used to further organize IP address space into hierarchical, logical groups.
– Audit of server configuration changes and tracking of IP address usage: Operational events are displayed for the IPAM server and managed DHCP servers. IPAM also enables IP address tracking using DHCP lease events and user logon events collected from Network Policy Server (NPS), domain controllers, and DHCP servers. Tracking is available by IP address, client ID, host name, or user name.
– Monitoring and management of DHCP and DNS services: IPAM enables automated service availability monitoring for Microsoft DHCP and DNS servers across the forest. DNS zone health is displayed, and detailed DHCP server and scope management is available using the IPAM console.

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.

QUESTION 10
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.

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1Y0-401 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which component should a Citrix Architect recommend to centrally audit any failed logon attempts to NetScaler Gateway? A Citrix Architect is asked to design a new external access architecture for CGE.
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix Command Center
D. Citrix NetScaler AppFlow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is using a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts, using a shared virtual disk storage repository for XenMotion, high availability, and the replication and backup of meta information the best design for the resource pools?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a disaster recovery process that leverages a backup solution.
B. It ensures simple setup with redundancy.
C. It bases resource pools on roles, and facilitates the movement of workloads from one resource pool to another in the event of maintenance or disaster recovery.
D. It ensures the separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, which optimizes performance and high availability.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. 1Y0-401 dumps Why does using Windows Deployment Services and centralizing the volume-activation process help manage the image versioning process?
A. It reduces licensing administration.
B. It helps manage version control.
C. It automates the license download process.
D. It enables the use of Multiple Activation Keys (MAKs).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario:
CGE\’s security officer states that, for compliance reasons, all network traffic between Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, and NetScalers must be encrypted.
Why does using SSL meet CGE\’s compliance requirements?
A. It eliminates the need to distribute an internal root certificate.
B. It encrypts end-to-end traffic from remote end users.
C. It enables the SSL Relay service.
D. It encrypts network traffic between XenDesktop, StoreFront, and NetScaler.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \’Active write back\’ when configuring group profiles benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It improves application performance.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
D. It improves data accuracy in volatile environments.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How should the architect configure high availability (HA) on a XenServer host to support an iSCSI SAN?
A. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and create a NIC bond.
B. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and enable Asymmetric Logical Unit Assignment (ALUA).
C. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a different Layer 3 network, run the HBA configuration utility, and verify that both can access the iSCSI storage array.
D. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a separate Layer 3 network, and enable XenServer Multipathing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy.
It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. 1Y0-401 dumps The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability.
Why is deploying MGMT as a VM hosted app on Windows 7 x86 with Machine Creation Services the best solution?
A. It supports 16-bit applications.
B. It meets the high-performance application demands of the Executives/Management end-user group.
C. It allows the installation of custom applications.
D. It offers faster change and rollback procedures.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Windows Deployment Services to facilitate image management?
A. By deploying a standard base image to virtual desktops
B. By deploying a base image from an XVA file
C. By centralizing the volume-activation process
D. By installing Windows applications into an image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements.
Why is Provisioning Services the best image management method for this environment?
A. It provides centralized image management.
B. It reduces the storage footprint.
C. It reduces network traffic.
D. It reduces infrastructure server requirements.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Why would the architect choose active-passive bonding when configuring network interfaces for storage networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What are the benefits of using Hosted Shared servers and manually installing the operating system?
A. It provides the highest end-user density at the lowest cost.
B. It provides the greatest level of end-user personalization and control.
C. It offers the lowest storage performance requirement and the highest end-user density.
D. It offers the lowest cost and the greatest application compatibility.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, 1Y0-401 dumps License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
How should the resource pools be designed to host the infrastructure workloads and virtual desktops to ensure high availability?
A. Resource pools comprising a maximum of eight XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be backed up daily, and third-party backup solutions should be implemented for the desktops.
B. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be on a storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be backed up daily.
C. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of all workloads should be on a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. Virtual machine meta information and data should be replicated to the failover site by the new storage solution.
D. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be on a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. Virtual machine meta information and data should be replicated and backed up.
Correct Answer: C

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