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Microsoft MCSE 70-412 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-412 google drive

[PDF] Free Microsoft MCSE 70-412 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Me7HxQRMv28MM4jZTCoXOF0dKCnDJAJt

Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-412.aspx

Skills measured: This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Configure and Manage High Availability
  • Configure File and Storage Solutions
  • Implement Business Continuity and Disaster Recovery
  • Configure Network Services
  • Configure the Active Directory Infrastructure
  • Configure Access and Information Protection Solutions

Who should take this exam?

This exam is part three of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge necessary to administer a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an enterprise environment. Passing this exam validates a candidate’s ability to perform the advanced configuring tasks required to deploy, manage, and maintain a Windows Server 2012 infrastructure, such as fault tolerance, certificate services, and identity federation. Passing this exam along with the other two exams confirms that a candidate has the skills and knowledge necessary for implementing, managing, maintaining,
and provisioning services and infrastructure in a Windows Server 2012 environment.

Latest updates Microsoft 70-412 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your company has a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The contoso.com domain contains three member
servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
In the main office, you configure Server1 as a file server that uses BranchCache.
In the branch office, you configure Server2 and Server3 as BranchCache hosted cache servers.
You are creating a Group Policy for the branch office site.
Which two Group Policy settings should you configure?
To answer, select the appropriate two settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q1-1

To use Group Policy to configure clients for hosted cache mode Step x: In the Turn on BranchCache dialog box, click
Enabled, and then click OK. Step x+1: In the Group Policy Management Editor console, ensure that BranchCache is still
selected, and then in the details pane double-click Set BranchCache Hosted Cache mode. The Set BranchCache
Hosted Cache mode dialog box opens. Reference: Use Group Policy to configure domain member clients for hosted
cache mode http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee649153(v=ws.10).aspx

 

QUESTION 2
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and
Server2 have the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 and Server2 have different processor models from the same manufacturer.
On Server1, you plan to create a virtual machine named VM1. Eventually, VM1 will be exported to Server2.
You need to ensure that when you import VM1 to Server2, you can start VM1 from saved snapshots.
What should you configure on VM1?
To answer, select the appropriate node in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q2

Correct Answer: lead4pass 70-412 exam question q2-1

Use the Processor Compatibility Mode only in cases where VMs will migrate from one Hyper-V-enabled processor type
to another within the same vendor processor family. Reference: When to Use Processor Compatibility Mode to Migrate
Virtual Machines technet.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/gg299590.aspx

 

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains domain controllers that
run either Windows Server 2003, Windows Server 2008 R2, or Windows Server 2012 R2.
You plan to implement a new Active Directory forest. The new forest will be used for testing and will be isolated from the
production network.
In the test network, you deploy a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure Server1 as a new domain controller in a new forest named contoso.test.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The functional level of the forest and of the domain must be the same as that of contoso.com.
Server1 must provide name resolution services for contoso.test.
What should you do? To answer, configure the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q3-1

Set the forest function level and the Domain functional level both to Windows Server 2003.
Also check Domain Name (DNS) server.
Note:
* When you deploy AD DS, set the domain and forest functional levels to the highest value that your environment can
support. This way, you can use as many AD DS features as possible. For example, if you are sure that you will never
add domain controllers that run Windows Server 2003 to the domain or forest, select the Windows Server 2008
functional level during the deployment process. However, if you might retain or add domain controllers that run Windows
Server 2003, select the Windows Server 2003 functional level.
* You can set the domain functional level to a value that is higher than the forest functional level. For example, if the
forest functional level is Windows Server 2003, you can set the domain functional level to Windows Server 2003or
higher.
Reference: Understanding Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) Functional Levels


QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers
named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 and Server2 have the Hyper-V server
role installed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q4

You add a third server named Server3 to the network. Server3 has Intel processors.
You need to move VM3 and VM6 to Server3. The solution must minimize downtime on the virtual machines.
Which method should you use to move each virtual machine?
To answer, select the appropriate method for each virtual machine in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q4-2

VM3: export/import is the only option due to different processor manufacturers
VM6: Live migration can be used as both have Intel CPU\\’s
Live Storage Migration requires same processor manufacturers
Live migration requires same processor manufacturers
Incorrect Answers:
Quick migration has downtime
Reference: Migrating Virtual Machines and Storage Overview
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/jj628158.aspx

 

QUESTION 5
Your network contains one Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the domain controllers
configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q5

The functional level of the domain and the forest is Windows Server 2008.
An administrator named Admin1 is a member of the Domain Admins group.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can deploy a Windows Server 2012 R2 domain controller to contoso.com.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-ADDomainMode cmdlet.
B. Raise the domain functional level.
C. Demote DC1 to a member server.
D. Add Admin1 to the Schema Admins Group.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://www.microsoftpressstore.com/articles/article.aspx?p=2216997andseqNum=3

 

QUESTION 6
Your network contains two DHCP servers named Server1 and Server2. Server1 fails.
You discover that DHCP clients can no longer receive IP address leases.
You need to ensure that the DHCP clients receive IP addresses immediately.
What should you configure from the View/Edit Failover Relationship settings? To answer, select the appropriate setting
in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q6-1

A manual failover will have to occur by clicking on the Change to partner down button (the partner has to actually be
unavailable to click this button).
Note: You can manually change the state of a server which is running in communication interrupted to partner down
using DHCP MMC or DHCP PowerShell.
In MMC, go to IPv4->Properties, go to Failover tab, select the specific failover relationship and click edit. You will see
“Change to partner down” button on the edit page. This button is enabled when the server is running in communication
interrupted state.
Reference: DHCP Failover Hot-Standby Mode
http://blogs.technet.com/b/teamdhcp/archive/2012/09/03/dhcp-failover-hot-standby-mode.aspx

 

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers
named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in
an NLB cluster named Cluster1. Both servers connect to the same switch.
Cluster1 hosts a secure web Application named WebApp1. WebApp1 saves user state information in a central
database.
You need to ensure that the connections to WebApp1 are distributed evenly between the nodes. The solution must
minimize port flooding.
What should you configure? To answer, configure the appropriate affinity and the appropriate mode for Cluster1 in the
answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q7-1

 

QUESTION 8
You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers named Server1
and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the Active Directory Federation Services server role
installed.
Server2 is a file server.
Your company introduces a Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) policy.
You need to ensure that users can use a personal device to access domain resources by using Single Sign-On (SSO)
while they are connected to the internal network.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Enable the Device Registration Service in Active Directory.
B. Publish the Device Registration Service by using a Web Application Proxy.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) for the Device Registration Service.
D. Create and configure a sync share on Server2.
E. Install the Work Folders role service on Server2.
Correct Answer: AC
*
Workplace Join leverages a feature included in the Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) Role in Windows
Server 2012 R2, called Device Registration Service (DRS). DRS provisions a device object in Active Directory when a
device is Workplace Joined. Once the device object is in Active Directory, attributes of that object can be retrieved and
used to provide conditional access to resources and applications. The device identity is represented by a certificate
which is set on the personal device by DRS when the device is Workplace Joined.
*
In Windows Server 2012 R2, AD FS and Active Directory Domain Services have been extended to comprehend the
most popular mobile devices and provide conditional access to enterprise resources based on user+device
combinations and access policies. With these policies in place, you can control access based on users, devices,
locations, and access times.
Reference: BYOD Basics: Enabling the use of Consumer Devices using Active Directory in Windows Server 2012 R2


QUESTION 10
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two servers named
Server1 and Server2. Both servers have the IP Address Management (IPAM) Server feature installed.
You have a support technician named Tech1. Tech1 is a member of the IPAM Administrators group on Server1 and
Server2. You need to ensure that Tech1 can use Server Manager on Server1 to manage IPAM on Server2. To which
group
on Server2 should you add Tech1? To answer, select the appropriate group in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10-1

If you are accessing the IPAM server remotely using Server Manager IPAM client RSAT, then you must be a member of
the WinRMRemoteWMIUsers group on the IPAM server, in addition to being a member of the appropriate IPAMsecurity
group (or local Administrators group).
References: Understand and Troubleshoot IP Address Management (IPAM) in Windows Server “8” Beta.
Your network contains two Web servers named Server1 and Server2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster. The NLB cluster contains an application
named App1 that is accessed by using the name appl.contoso.com.
The NLB cluster has the port rules configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) lead4pass 70-412 exam question q10-2

 

QUESTION 11
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com. The forest contains one domain. The domain
contains the domain controllers shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-412 exam question q11

You verify the site links as shown in the following output.

lead4pass 70-412 exam question q11-1

You need to ensure that User1 replicates to all the domain controllers. What should you do?
A. Enable the Bridge all site links option.
B. Decrease the Cost value on Link2.
C. Add Site3 to Link1.
D. Run repadmin /synca11/A on DC1.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server 2. Both servers run Windows Server 2012 R2 and have
the Hyper-V server role installed.
Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. The virtual machine configuration files and the virtual hard disks for VM1
are stored in D: \VM1.
You shut down VM1 on Server1.
You copy D:\VM1 to D:\VM1 on Server2.
You need to start VM1 on Server2. You want to achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Run the Import-VMIntialReplication cmdlet.
B. Create a new virtual machine on Server2 and attach the VHD from VM1 to the new virtual machine.
C. From Hyper-V Manager, run the Import Virtual Machine wizard.
D. Run the Import-IscsiVirtualDisk cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C
Starting in Windows Server 2012, you no longer need to export a virtual machine to be able to import it. You can simply
copy a virtual machine and its associated files to the new host, and then use the Import Virtual Machine wizard to
specify the location of the files. This registers the virtual machine with Hyper-V and makes it available for use. In
addition to the wizard, the Hyper-V module for Windows PowerShell includes cmdlets for importing virtual machines. For
more information, see Import-VM
Reference: Overview of exporting and importing a virtual machine

 

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two member servers
named Server1 and Server2. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Server1 and Server2 have the Failover Clustering feature installed. The servers are configured as nodes in a failover
cluster named Cluster1. Cluster1 contains a Clustered Shared Volume (CSV).
A developer creates an application named App1. App1 is NOT a cluster-aware application. App1 stores data in the file
system.
You need to ensure that App1 runs in Cluster1. The solution must minimize development effort.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Add-ClusterServerRole
B. Add-ClusterScaleOutFileServerRole
C. Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
D. Add-ClusterGenericServiceRole
Correct Answer: C
Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
Configure high availability for an application that was not originally designed to run in a failover cluster.
If you run an application as a Generic Application, the cluster software will start the application, then periodically query
the operating system to see whether the application appears to be running. If so, it is presumed to be online, and will
not
be restarted or failed over.
References: Add-ClusterGenericApplicationRole
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ee460976.aspx

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Best way to pass the Cisco 300-160 exam – 100% free

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Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 Exam Video

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-160 google drive

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300-160 DCID – Cisco:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/dcid.html

This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of data center infrastructure design pertaining to deployment requirements and options for network connectivity, infrastructure, storage network, compute connectivity and compute resource parameters.

Latest updates Cisco 300-160 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Your client is a large financial institution that is subject to security regulations. They have asked you for the highest level
of traffic separation natively available on the Cisco Nexus 5500. Which answer is correct?
A. VDC
B. VRF
C. VLAN
D. Subnet
E. Port Profile
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-160 exam question q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
What is your recommendation to a customer interested in slowing power consumption in the data center? (Choose
two.)
A. Consolidate servers through virtualization.
B. Convert servers from 220v to 110v.
C. Implement Cisco Unified Fabric.
D. Convert from AC to DC power distribution.
E. Stop using redundant power supplies.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 4
Which two actions must be performed when you configure Cisco VN-Link in hardware? (Choose two.)
A. Create a distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Add an ESX host to the distributed virtual switch in Cisco UCS Manager.
C. Create a port profile and profile clients in Cisco UCS Manager.
D. Create a standard switch on an ESXi host and map the network adapters to the switch.
E. Create a distributed virtual switch under the datacenter folder in VMware vCenter.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 5
Which three items represent data center virtualization technologies? (Choose three.)
A. VDC
B. VSAN
C. LUN
D. L2 firewall
E. GLBP
F. ECMP
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 6
Which three options does Cisco Data Mobility Manager provide? (Choose three.)
A. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during low traffic hours or minimize interference
B. brings the need for multiple migration solutions
C. moves from a smaller logical unit number to a larger LUN
D. manages all capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
E. manages all capabilities from CLI
F. can change the migration rate to shorten windows during high traffic hours or maximize interference
G. manages some capabilities from an easy-to-use GUI
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 7
What is one example of a business requirement that drives the design of a newly installed data center?
A. power
B. cooling
C. resource utilization and provisioning
D. global availability
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
You have a Cisco UCS B-Series chassis. To connect to a blade server by using a remote KVM console, you should
connect to the IP address of which component?
A. mgmt0
B. CIMC
C. IPMI
D. CMP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Which four options describe I/O Accelerator? (Choose four.)
A. is topology dependent
B. provides unified acceleration service
C. provides high availability and resiliency
D. provides load balancing
E. is transport agnostic
F. Each IOA engine provides 1-Gbps application throughput.
G. uses TCP
H. does not support multiple paths and PortChannels
Correct Answer: BCDE

 

QUESTION 10
Which three facility challenges may a customer encounter while designing a data center? (Choose three.)
A. space availability
B. power capacity
C. cooling capacity
D. PCI compliance
E. application performance
Correct Answer: ABC

 

QUESTION 11
Scenario
Review topology and screenshots, and then answer questions that validate your knowledge of
Cisco Nexus Switches.lead4pass 300-160 exam question q11

Instructions
To access the multiple-choice questions, click on the numbered boxes on the left of the top panel.
Review the Exhibit associated with the question.
There are four multiple-choice questions with this task.
Be sure to answer all four questions before selecting the Next button

lead4pass 300-160 exam question q11-1

Refer to the Topology in Exhibit 1. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All four links from the Cisco Nexus7000s to the Cisco Nexus 5000s are forwarding.
B. Multipath I/O from the Cisco UCS C200 servers to Fibre Channel storage is unavailable with this topology.
C. The Fabric Extenders are simultaneously active on the Cisco Nexus 5000s and Cisco Nexus 7000 switches.
D. The Fabric Extenders support FCoE.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
Which option limits oversubscription at the data center core?
A. cost
B. broadcast
C. loop
D. congestion
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Which option must be enabled to allow line-rate forwarding on a Fibre Channel port?
A. F port
B. TEport
C. dedicated mode
D. shared mode
E. E port
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCNP Security 300-208 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Drag and drop the portals from the left onto the correct portal tasks on the right. 

Select and Place: lead4pass 300-208 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q1-1

Certificate provisioning = Request a certificate for a device that is unable to use onboarding support Client provisioning
= Provide a posture assessment for a device My Devices = Register a lost device Blacklist = Remove a device

 

QUESTION 2
A security engineer is deploying Cisco ISE for a company\\’s guest user services. Drag and drop the Cisco ISE persona
on the left onto its function on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-208 exam question q2

 

QUESTION 3
CORRECT TEXT
The Secure-X company has recently successfully tested the 802.1X authentication deployment using the Cisco Catalyst
switch and the Cisco ISEv1.2 appliance. Currently, each employee desktop is connected to an 802.1X enabled switch
port and is able to use the Cisco AnyConnect NAM 802.1Xsupplicantto log in and connect to the network.
Currently, a new testing requirement is to add a network printer to the Fa0/19 switch port and have it connect to the
network. The network printer does not support 802.1X supplicant. The Fa0/19 switch port is now configured to use
802.1X
authentication only.
To support this network printer, the Fa0/19 switch port configuration needs to be edited to enable the network printer to
authenticate using its MAC address. The network printer should also be on VLAN 9.
Another network security engineer responsible for managing the Cisco ISE has already per-configured all the
requirements on the Cisco ISE, including adding the network printer MAC address to the Cisco ISE endpoint database
and etc…
Your task in the simulation is to access the Cisco Catalyst Switch console then use the CLI
to:
Enable only the Cisco Catalyst Switch Fa0/19 switch port to authenticate the network printer using its MAC address
and:
Ensure that MAC address authentication processing is not delayed until 802.1Xfails
Ensure that even if MAC address authentication passes, the switch will still perform 802.1X authentication if requested
by a 802.1X supplicant
Use the required show command to verify the MAC address authentication on the Fa0/19 is successful
The switch enable password is Cisco For the purpose of the simulation, to test the network printer, assume the network
printer will be unplugged then plugged back into the Fa0/19 switch port after you have finished the required
configurations on the Fa0/19 switch port. Note: For this simulation, you will not need and do not have access to the ISE
GUI To access the switch CLI, click the Switch icon in the topology diagramlead4pass 300-208 exam question q3

Correct Answer: Review the for full configuration and solution.
Initial configuration for fa 0/19 that is already done:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q3-1

AAA configuration has already been done for us. We need to configure mac address bypass on this port to achieve the
goal stated in the question. To do this we simply need to add this command under the interface:
mab
Then do a shut/no shut on the interface.
Verification:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q3-2

 

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the BYOD user experiences on an iPad on the left into the correct order on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-208 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
Drag and drop each guest user login screen from the left onto the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-208 exam question q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
Drag and drop each posture assessment outcome from the left onto the appropriate definition on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-208 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q6-1

Noncompliant = NAC agent determined something on the endpoint is in violation of the defined security policy
Compliant = NAC agent on the endpoint determined that the software assessment on the endpoint adheres to the
security policy Unknown = The endpoint failed to report a posture assessment to ISE.

 

QUESTION 7
CORRECT TEXT
The Secure-X company has started to tested the 802.1X authentication deployment using the Cisco Catalyst 3560-X
layer 3 switch and the Cisco ISEvl2 appliance. Each employee desktop will be connected to the 802.1X enabled switch
port and will use the Cisco AnyConnect NAM 802.1X supplicant to log in and connect to the network. Your particular
tasks in this simulation are to create a new identity source sequence named AD_internal which will first use the
Microsoft Active Directory (AD1) then use the ISE Internal User database. Once the new identity source sequence
has been configured, edit the existing DotlX authentication policy to use the new AD_internal identity source sequence.
The Microsoft Active Directory (AD1) identity store has already been successfully configured, you just need to reference
it in your configuration.lead4pass 300-208 exam question q7

In addition to the above, you are also tasked to edit the IT users authorization policy so IT users who successfully
authenticated will get the permission of the existing IT_Corp authorization profile.
Perform this simulation by accessing the ISE GUI to perform the following tasks:
Create a new identity source sequence named AD_internal to first use the Microsoft Active Directory (AD1) then use the
ISE Internal User database
Edit the existing Dot1X authentication policy to use the new AD_internal identity source sequence:
If authentication failed-reject the access request
If user is not found in AD-Drop the request without sending a response
If process failed-Drop the request without sending a response
Edit the IT users authorization policy so IT users who successfully authenticated will get the permission of the existing
IT_Corp authorization profile.
To access the ISE GUI, click the ISE icon in the topology diagram. To verify your configurations, from the ISE GUI, you
should also see the Authentication Succeeded event for the it1 user after you have successfully defined the DotlX
authentication policy to use the Microsoft Active Directory first then use the ISE Internal User Database to authenticate
the user. And in the Authentication Succeeded event, you should see the IT_Corp authorization profile being applied to
the it1 user. If your configuration is not correct and ISE can\\’t authenticate the user against the Microsoft Active
Directory, you should see the Authentication Failed event instead for the it1 user.
Note: If you make a mistake in the Identity Source Sequence configuration, please delete the Identity Source Sequence
then re-add a new one. The edit Identity Source Sequence function is not implemented in this simulation.

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q7-1 lead4pass 300-208 exam question q7-2

Correct Answer: Review the for full configuration and solution.
Step 1: create a new identity source sequence named AD_internal which will first use the Microsoft Active Directory
(AD1) then use the ISE Internal User database as shown below:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q7-3

Step 2: Edit the existing Dot1x policy to use the newly created Identity Source:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q7-4

Then hit Done and save.

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the posture remediation actions from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-208 exam question q8

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-4/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_24/b_ise_admin_guide_24_new_chapter_011110.html#reference_F304C79D82674621A0CBAEBED45066D9

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QUESTION 1
An organization plans to deploy a new application in their environment. The new application requires 4 TB of storage
space. During peak workloads, the application is expected to generate 4900 IOPS with a typical I/O size of 8 KB. The
capacity of each available disk drive is 500 GB. The maximum number of IOPS a drive can perform at with a 70 percent
utilization is 110 IOPS.
What is the minimum number of disk drives needed to meet the application\\’s capacity and performance requirements
given a RAID 0 configuration?
A. 8
B. 20
C. 30
D. 45
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 2
What is a benefit of deploying a multi-site storage system-based remote replication solution?
A. Ensures disaster recovery protection remains available in the event of source or remote site failures
B. Provides the capability to recover data to any point-in-time
C. Requires low network bandwidth to perform synchronous replication
D. Enables a consistent near-zero RPO in the event of source and remote site failures
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
What is an accurate statement about three-way NDMP backup in a NAS environment?
A. Backup device can be shared among multiple NAS heads
B. Each NAS head should have a dedicated backup device
C. Backup data traverses at least three NAS heads before reaching the backup device
D. Backup is performed only when three or more NAS heads are present
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
What does the transformation of an operating model for third platform adoption involve?
A. Provisioning IT resources through a self-service portal
B. Establishing new roles and responsibilities to manage IT services
C. Adopting virtualization technologies to enable automation
D. Building new technical and business skills in the IT staff
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
What is an advantage of performing cumulative backups compared to incremental backups for the same data?
A. Facilitates faster restores
B. Facilitates faster backups
C. Reduces the storage space required for backups
D. Eliminates the need for full backups
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
An organization has several virtual machines (VMs) deployed in their data center. The VM files are stored on a block-
based storage system. The applications on the VMs are impacted during VM backup because the backup agents on the
VMs are consuming a large amount of resources.
Which alternate backup solution is recommended to address this issue?
A. Image-based backup
B. Three-way NDMP backup
C. Two-way NDMP backup
D. Target-based deduplication backup
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 7
What is a benefit of implementing a virtual machine (VM) storage migration?
A. Balances storage utilization by redistributing VMs across different storage systems
B. Enables VMs to keep functioning even if the source data is lost due to a failure
C. Improves the security of applications running inside VMs on the migrated storage system
D. Reduces the overall storage system capacity requirements for organizations
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
What is enabled by the N_Port ID virtualization (NPIV)?
A. A single physical N_Port to obtain multiple FC addresses
B. A single virtual N_Port to act as a physical Ethernet port
C. A virtualization layer to map virtual volumes to LUN IDs
D. A single physical N_Port to act as a virtual HBA port
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
What maps the logical path of a file system to its physical path in a file-level virtualization implementation?
A. Global namespace
B. Remote procedure call
C. Distributed file system
D. Cache coherency
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
What is an accurate statement about a logical volume in a compute system?
A. Can span across multiple physical volumes
B. Can only be created from a single physical volume
C. Must be created across multiple volume groups
D. Allows multiple file systems to run concurrently
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
What is compromised by a passive attack on an IT infrastructure?
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. Repudiation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
What is an advantage of a software-based object storage implementation?
A. Provides the flexibility to reuse the existing infrastructure
B. Requires less storage capacity to store a large number of objects
C. Provides the flexibility to create more than one object ID for an object
D. Requires less hardware to support scalable architecture
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Which NAS implementation requires separate management of the NAS head and the storage?
A. Gateway
B. Scale-out
C. Unified
D. Integrated
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is the minimum number of nodes required to build a VxRail 4 5 cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
In a VxRail appliance, which task is performed using VxRail Manager?
A. Create storage pools
B. Remediate health events
C. Manage VxRail users and roles
D. Perform software upgrade
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
What is a consideration when choosing between vSphere Encryption and vSAN Encryption?
A. vSphere Encryption applies to the entire vSAN datastore vSAN Encryption is on a per VM basis
B. vSphere Encryption does not support deduplication and compression vSAN Encryption allows deduplication and
compression
C. vSphere Encryption addresses fears of media theft vSAN Encryption addresses fears of a rogue admin
D. vSphere Encryption is for data-at-rest vSAN Encryption is for data-in-flight
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which level of data protection can be configured across sites in a VxRail Stretched Cluster?
A. RAID1
B. RAID 5
C. RAID 1/0
D. RAID 6
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
A VxRail administrator wants to monitor vSAN Backend IOPS, Throughput, and Latency in the vSphere Web Client.
What must be turned on to monitor these metrics?
A. vSAN Performance Service
B. vSAN Health Service
C. vSphere Distributed Resource Scheduler
D. vSAN Disk Management
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
What is a consideration when planning for node expansion of an existing 4-node All-Flash Dell EMC VxRail 4 5 2xx
cluster?
A. vSphere Web Client is used to perform the expansion procedure
B. New nodes can be hybrid or All-Flash
C. New nodes must be identical to the existing nodes
D. Expansion procedure is performed by Dell EMC or a Dell EMC partner
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which VxRail model series supports only hybrid disks?
A. S Series
B. P Series
C. E Series
D. G series
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
In a VxRail appliance, what does vSAN use in the form of flexible data containers to store and manage data?
A. Datastores
B. nodes
C. Objects
D. Logical volumes
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
What is used in the VxRail infrastructure to manage multiple clusters of ESXi servers?
A. Host client
B. vCenter
C. VxRail Manager
D. ESXi
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
When needed the vSAN might also break large objects into multiple components. What is the maximum size of a
component?
A. 63 GB
B. 127 GB
C. 255 GB
D. 511 GB
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 11
As an administrator, you are asked to view the health of the vSAN on the VxRail cluster.
You select the VxRail cluster in the Navigation panel in vCenter Under which tab could you run the vSAN health check?
A. Hosts
B. vSAN
C. Monitor
D. Datastores
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
An administrator attempts to add an S Series node to a Gen 2 VxRail cluster and the build fails.
What is a possible reason for this failure?
A. IP address pool has no more free addresses
B. Hybrid and Flash nodes cannot be mixed in the same cluster
C. Quanta and Dell nodes cannot be mixed in the same cluster
D. Loudmouth process needs to be restarted
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 13
A company intends to deploy VxRail for their heavy database workloads on Oracle 11G. Which type of VxRail nodes
should be recommended?
A. E Series
B. S Series
C. P Series
D. V Series
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

Which devices support download of environmental data and IP from Cisco ISE to SGT bindings in their SGFW

implementation?

A. Cisco ASA devices

B. Cisco ISR G2 and later devices with ZBFW

C. Cisco ISR G3 devices with ZBFW

D. Cisco ASR devices with ZBFW

Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2

Which three algorithms should be avoided due to security concerns? (Choose three.) 

A. DES for encryption 

B. SHA-1 for hashing 

C. 1024-bit RSA 

D. AES GCM mode for encryption 

E. HMAC-SHA-1 

F. 256-bit Elliptic Curve Diffie-Hellman 

G. 2048-bit Diffie-Hellman 

Correct Answer: ABC 

 

QUESTION 3

A network administrator must remediate unpatched servers by redirecting them to their remediation portal. Which

conditions in the authorization policy must the network administrator provision on Cisco ISE to accomplish this task? 

A. noncompliant 

B. quarantine 

C. compliant 

D. URL redirect 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 4

Wireless client supplicants attempting to authenticate to a wireless network are generating excessive log messages.

Which three WLC authentication settings should be disabled? (Choose three.) 

A. RADIUS Server Timeout 

B. RADIUS Aggressive-Failover 

C. Idle Timer 

D. Session Timeout 

E. Client Exclusion 

F. Roaming 

Correct Answer: BCD 

 

QUESTION 5

When using CA for identity source, which method can be used to provide real-time certificate validation?

A. X.509

B. PKI

C. OCSP

D. CRL

Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6

How many bits are in a security group tag? 

A. 64 

B. 8 

C. 16 

D. 32 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 7

Cisco 802.1X phasing enables flexible deployments through the use of open, low-impact, and closed modes. What is a

unique characteristic of the most secure mode? 

A. Granular ACLs applied prior to authentication 

B. Per user dACLs applied after successful authentication 

C. Only EAPoL traffic allowed prior to authentication 

D. Adjustable 802.1X timers to enable successful authentication 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 8

Which two profile attributes can be collected by a Cisco Catalyst Switch that supports Device Sensor? (Choose two.) 

A. LLDP agent information 

B. user agent 

C. DHCP options 

D. open ports 

E. operating system 

F. trunk ports 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 9

A network administrator is seeing a posture status “unknown” for a single corporate machine on the Cisco ISE

authentication report, whereas the other machines are reported as “compliant”. Which option is the reason for machine

being reported as “unknown”? 

A. Posture agent is not installed on the machine. 

B. Posture policy does not support the OS. 

C. Posfure compliance condition is missing on the machine. 

D. Posture service is disabled on Cisco ISE. 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 10

A Cisco ISE deployment wants to use Active Directory as an external identity source. Which technology is a prerequisite

to configure ISE/Active Directory integration? 

A. WINS 

B. NTP 

C. PTP 

D. CHAP 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 11

Select and Place:lead4pass 300-208 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-208 exam question q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
Which three of these are features of data plane security on a Cisco ISR? (Choose three)
A. Routing protocol filtering
B. FPM
C. uRPF
D. RBAC
E. CPPr
F. Netflow export
Correct Answer: BCF


QUESTION 13
After you connected unmanaged switch to the port dot1x failed,what is the problem ?
A. missing command “mab”
B. there is no Bpdu in the port
C. eapol packet not erceived in the port
D. missing command “authentication host-mode multi-host”
E. missing command “authentication host-mode multi-auth
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about when you configure FlexConnect APs and you want to set up Cisco Centralized Key
Management fast roaming is true?
A. FlexConnect groups are required for Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming to work with FlexConnect
access points.
B. APs that are in the same FlexConnect group but associated to different WLCs support Cisco Centralized Key
Management.
C. Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming among FlexConnect and non-FlexConnect access points is
supported.
D. The FlexConnect access point must be in standalone mode to support Cisco Centralized Key Management.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
The customer has deployed C7960 phones with clients connected to them. What switch feature could be enabled to
distinguish IP voice traffic from client data traffic?
A. VoiceVLAN
B. QoS routing
C. WME
D. Weighted Queuing
E. QBSS
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
A corporation has a Cisco Unified Wireless Network that has been deployed for voice coverage. The wireless data rates
have been tuned to mandatory rates of 18 Mbps and 36 Mbps. Some wireless clients have been experiencing drops
streaming multicast video while moving throughout the building. What is the cause of the drop in video?
A. Clients are roaming at lower data rates and are not maintaining 36Mbps connectivity.
B. Clients are not roaming due to coverage. This is causing the multicast data to drop due to the client re-associating
often.
C. Clients are connected at 18Mbps; however, other clients are connecting at 12Mbps and are causing the multicast
video to degrade.
D. Clients are maintaining a 12Mbps rate and cannot receive the stream at 18Mbps.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
A security engineer wants all guest users to be terminated on the DMZ of their firewall. Which two configurations must
be implemented to fulfill this new requirement? (Choose two.)
A. TCP port 16666 and 16113 in an ACL on the controller
B. UDP ports 16666 and IP protocol 97 on the firewall
C. a mobility group with a controller in an isolated network on the firewall
D. an RF group with a controller in an isolated network on the firewall
E. UDP ports 1812 and 1645 in an ACL on the controller
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 5
You have VoWiFi running on FlexConnect AP with centrally-switched SSID. Which configuration must be performed to
preserve marking for central-switching SSID?
A. Trust DSCP
B. This will not work. The WLAN should be locally switched and we need to trust CoS.
C. Trust CoS
D. No need to trust anything. It should work fine because the WLAN is centrally switched.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
A network engineer is debugging issues with the mDNS gateway. Which type of reply should be seen in the Wireshark
capture when querying for a mDNS service in the Bonjour Cache?
A. unicast from Prime Infrastructure
B. unicast from controller
C. multicast from devices
D. multicast from controller
E. unicast from devices
F. multicast from Prime Infrastructure
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Clients at a remote FlexConnect site with ID 338789750 are experiencing poor roaming despite the fact that Cisco
Centralized Key Management is enabled on the SSID. Which FlexConnect feature must be configured to resolve this
issue?
A. local authentication
B. central switching
C. learn client IP address
D. FlexConnect group
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 8
Which IEEE standard allows for the client-AP handshake to be completed before the client roams?
A. 802.11v
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11r
D. 802.11k
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 10
An engineer wants to configure Call Admission Control and ensure that AC is based on the capacity of the AP and
considering the possible impact of other APs in the area. Which two configuration options are required? (Choose two.)
A. StaticCAC
B. Admission Control
C. Load-Based AC
D. Add Traffic Stream
E. Reserved Roaming Bandwidth
F. Expedited Bandwidth
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 11
What needs to be changed in the configuration of the East-WLC-2504A controller to restore functionality to the
Employees-East-Wing AP Group? (Choose four.)
A. Change the AP in the Employees-East-Wing AP Group.
B. Change the IP Address in the east-wing interface.
C. Change the VLAN Identifier in the east-wing interface.
D. Enable Dynamic AP Management in the east-wing interface.
E. Change the Port Number to 2 in the east-wing interface.
F. Add the Primary Controller and IP address to the 3700-East-Wing AP.
G. Change the SSID in the Employees-East-Wing AP Group.
H. Change the Interface/Interface Group In the Employees-East-Wing AP Group.
Correct Answer: DFGH


QUESTION 12
An engineer wants to identify historical data collected by the Cisco MSE on rogue access points over the past two
years. If the Cisco MSE is configured for maximum historical data retention, how many months can be searched?
A. 24
B. 36
C. 6
D. 12
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 13
An engineer must create data-link redundancy for the company Cisco Wireless LAN Controller. The engineer has
decided to configure LAG-based redundancy instead of port-based redundancy. Which three features of LAG-based
redundancy helped steer this decision? (Choose three.)
A. All interface traffic passes as long as one port is up.
B. Multiple untagged dynamic interfaces on same port.
C. Interface connection to two separate non-stacked switches.
D. Packets are always sent out on the same port they are received on.
E. Full bandwidth of all links available.
F. Ports are grouped into multiple LAGs.
Correct Answer: ADF


QUESTION 14
An engineer wants to configure Call Admission Control and ensure that AC is based on the capacity of the AP and
considering the possible impact of other APs in the area. Which two configuration options are required? (Choose two.)
A. StaticCAC
B. Admission Control
C. Load-Based AC
D. Add Traffic Stream
E. Reserved Roaming Bandwidth
F. Expedited Bandwidth
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 15
A customer has implemented several WLANs in an auditorium utilizing a newly dedicated WLC and is experiencing
excessive channel utilization regardless of occupancy. Which action reduces channel utilization without removing
SSIDs?
A. Disable MCS data rates 0 through 11.
B. Disable MCS data rates used by 40 MHz channels.
C. Disable data rates that use CCK.
D. Disable VHT data rates.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 16
An engineer has enabled Cisco Centralized Key Management on a WLAN with local and FlexConnect mode APs. The
engineer notices that Cisco CKM is not working for the FlexConnect APs when looking at roaming, but is working for
local mode APs. Which change is needed on the controller for Cisco CKM to work for the FlexConnect APs?
A. Place APs in FlexConnect group.
B. Enable FlexConnect Central Assoc.
C. Use local authentication.
D. Configure VLAN-based central switching.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
How is password recovery performed on a Cisco Mobility Services Engine 3300 Series?
A. Interrupt the boot sequence and modify the GRUB boot loader.
B. Reboot using a CD that is imaged with an ISO bootable file to reimage Cisco MSE.
C. Interrupt the boot sequence and modify the BIOS boot loader.
D. Use the emergency TFTP bootable image.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 18
An engineer would like to capture NetFlowdata on PI. Which resource is required to allow this?
A. Cisco MSE as NetFlow exporter
B. Prime Infrastructure 1.0 or later
C. Cisco NAC as NetFlow exporter
D. Cisco ISE as NetFlow exporter
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 19
A network engineer just finished deploying a converged access wireless infrastructure. The configuration consists of
Cisco Catalyst 3850 Series switches operating as mobility controllers and agents in multiple switch peer groups and
mobility subdomains. Which change must be made to allow for seamless roaming between switch peer groups?
A. Add one Cisco 5760 WLC as a mobility oracle and configure on each of the mobility controllers in the converged
access infrastructure.
B. Add another Cisco Catalyst 3850 switch as a mobility oracle and configure on each of the mobility controllers in the
converged access infrastructure.
C. Convert one controller to a mobility oracle while the other mobility controllers and agents should be configured in the
same mobility domain.
D. Configure all switches as mobility controllers in the same switch peer group to allow for seamless roaming.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
A client reports that video is not streaming. The administrator determines the client is connecting at a data rate of 12
Mbps and is trying to stream to a valid multicast address on the network. What three items should the administrator
check next to troubleshoot the issue? (Choose three)
A. IGMP snooping is turned off because the client cannot request to join a group, only access points can.
B. Video-stream for the multicast video is configured in the controller.
C. WLAN has been set for a QoS value of Platinum.
D. WLAN has been configured to allow multicast-direct to work correctly and multicast-direct has been enabled globally.
E. WLAN has been set for a QoS value of Gold.
F. RTSP is used to stream the video due to wireless multicast not using acknowledgements.
Correct Answer: BDE

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July 2018 New Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Refer to the graphic.
200-125 dumps
A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
The simple syntax of static route:
ip route destination-network-address subnet-mask {next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface} + destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network + subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network + next-hopIP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router + exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out In the statement “ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0:
+ 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0: the destination network
+fa0/0: the exit-interface

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit
200-125 dumps
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH connections, add the “transport input ssh” command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only.
Straight (non-SSH) Telnets are refused.

QUESTION 3
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE

Explanation:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick. A short, well written article on this operation can be found here:

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.

QUESTION 5
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. 200-125 dumps The protocol will define a Hello packet format and a procedure for exchanging the packets and processing the information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one that sent the LSA.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
In this example, there are a total of 8 MB, but 3.8 are being used already, so another file as large as 4MB can be loaded in addition to the original file.

QUESTION 7
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this command (some next pages are omitted).
200-125 dumps
A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours are clearly shown:
200-125 dumps
+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.
+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within the period displayed in the graph. For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72 hours is 37% about six hours ago.

QUESTION 8
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and
has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway.
What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined to a different VLA will be sent to the C-router. 200-125 dumps The C-router will have knowledge of all three networks since they will appear as directly connected in the routing table. Since the C-router already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.

QUESTION 10
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to set the default gateway in a Cisco router.

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
r120#show ip ospf data
OSPF Router with ID (10.0.0.120) (Process ID 1)
Next, who are the other routers in our area?
Router Link States (Area 1)
Link IDADV RouterAgeSeq#ChecksumLink count
10.0.0.11110.0.0.1116000x8000023A 0x0092B31
10.0.0.11210.0.0.11212460×80000234 0x009CAC1
10.0.0.11310.0.0.1131480x8000022C0x0043993
10.0.0.12010.0.0.1201520x800002400x0046CB1
We can see OSPF Router ID will be used as source of Type 1 LSA. Also the router will chose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the
Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks–those with only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to Router R1.

Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.

QUESTION 13
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router.
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 14
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to speed up convergence
D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
Correct Answer: BCD

Explanation:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures ?
Deterministic traffic recovery
?
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Notice the line, which says “Interface VLAN1, changed state to administratively down”. This shows that VLAN1 is shut down. Hence remote management of this switch is not possible unless VLAN1 is brought back up. Since VLAN1 is the only interface shown in the output, you have to assume that no other VLAN interface has been configured with an IP Address.

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
From the routing table we learn that network 192.168.10.0/30 is learned via 2 equal-cost paths (192.168.10.9 &192.168.10.5) -> traffic to this network will be load-balancing.

QUESTION 17
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? 200-125 dumps (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

Explanation:
Here is a list of the differences between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3:
They use different address families (OSPFv2 is for IPv4-only, OSPFv3 can be used for IPv6-only or both protocols
OSPFv3 introduces new LSA types
OSPFv3 has different packet format
OSPFv3 uses different flooding scope bits (U/S2/S1) OSPFv3 adjacencies are formed over link-local IPv6 communications OSPFv3 runs per-link rather than per-subnet
OSPFv3 supports multiple instances on a single link, Interfaces can have multiple IPv6 addresses
OSPFv3 uses multicast addresses FF02::5 (all OSPF routers), FF02::6 (all OSPF DRs)
OSPFv3 Neighbor Authentication done with IPsec (AH) OSPFv2 Router ID (RID) must be manually configured, still a 32-bit number

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?
A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Host on the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.10.64/26 subnet. From the output of the routing table of R3 we learn this network can be reach via 192.168.10.9, which is an IP address in 192.168.10.8/30 network (the network between R1 & R3) -> packets destined for 192.168.10.64 will be routed from R3 -> R1 -> LAN on R1.

QUESTION 19
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Default (normal) Boot Sequence
Power on Router – Router does POST – Bootstrap starts IOS load – Check configuration register to see what mode the router should boot up in (usually 0x2102 to read startup- config in NVRAM / or 0x2142 to start in “setup-mode”) – check the startup-config file in NVRAM for boot-system commands – load IOS from Flash.

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The destination IP address 10.1.5.65 belongs to 10.1.5.64/28, 10.1.5.64/29 & 10.1.5.64/27 subnets but the “longest prefix match” algorithm will choose the most specific subnet mask -> the prefix “/29 will be chosen to route the packet.
Therefore the next-hop should be 10.1.3.3 ->.

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The Best Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-883 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
In comparing IS-IS with OSPF, a Level-1-2 IS-IS router is similar to which kind of OSPF router?
A. ASBR on a normal OSPF area
B. ASBR on NSSA
C. ABR on totally stubby OSPF area
D. ABR on stubby OSPF area
E. ABR on a normal OSPF area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the topology diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which IS-IS feature could be implemented so that the return path for the packets from router Y in area 49.00AA to router X in area 49.00BB will use the more optimal path?
A. Enable route leaking to pass Level 2 information into the Level 1 routers.
B. Change the area 49.00AA type from a stub area to a regular area.
C. Change the IS-IS administrative distance on router Y in area 49.00AA.
D. Change the IS-IS metric type from narrow to wide on all IS-IS routers.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Which two configuration options can be used to optimize the IS-IS network scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 2.
B. Change the R1 and R2 IS type to Level 1.
C. Change the gi0/0 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1 and R2 to Level 2 only.
D. Change the gi0/1 interface IS-IS circuit type on R1and R2 to Level 1.
E. Change the IS type for all the routers to Level-1-2.
F. Change the IS-IS network type for all the routers to point-to-point.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
The Cisco IOS XE Software summary-address router IS-IS configuration command can be used to send a summarized route into which IS-IS hierarchy?
A. Level 1 only
B. Level 2 only
C. Level-1-2 only
D. Level 1 or Level 2 or Level-1-2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the Cisco IOS XE IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
What are two problems with the configuration that are causing the IPv4, or the IPv6, or the IPv4 and IPv6 IS-IS operations to fail? (Choose two.) 642-883 dumps
A. The configuration is missing the interface gi0/0 and interface gi0/0 commands under router isis 1.
B. The configuration is missing the address-family ipv4 unicast and address-family ipv6 unicast commands under router isis 1.
C. IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled globally on the Cisco IOS XE router.
D. The gi0/0 and gi0/1 interfaces are not participating in the router isis 1 routing instance.
E. Multitopology IS-IS must be enabled to support both IPv4 and IPv6.
F. Another router isis instance must be enabled to support IPv6.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
In which network environment is IS-IS adjacency check important?
A. in a multitopology environment where there are different instances of IS-IS running on the same router
B. in an IPv4/IPv6 environment and running single-topology IS-IS
C. when a level L1/L2 IS-IS router is neighboring with a Level 1 only or Level 2 only router
D. when IS-IS neighbors are in an NBMA environment like over Frame Relay
E. when IS-IS neighbors are in a broadcast environment like an Ethernet LAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the IS-IS configuration exhibit.
642-883 dumps
This is the typical IS-IS configuration of the routers in an AS using IS-IS as the IGP. This AS is in the transition phase of integrating IPv6 into the network. During this transition phase, some of the routers within the AS might be running IPv4 only, some might be running IPv6 only, and others might be running both IPv4 and IPv6. To avoid any black holes for the IPv6 traffic, which configuration change can be made?
A. Disable IS-IS adjacency checks.
B. Enable IPv6 adjacency over IPv4 IS-IS peering.
C. Enable multi-topology IS-IS.
D. Disable the IPv4 unicast address-family.
E. Enable IS-IS wide metric to support the single-topology mode.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
When implementing OSPF, which type of networks require DR/BDR election?
A. point-to-point networks
B. mutli-access broadcast networks
C. non-broadcast multi-access networks (Hub and Spoke Frame Relay) using point-to-multipoint OSPF network type
D. All networks type
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The S bit in the MPLS header is used for what purpose?
A. To indicate the bottom level in the label stack
B. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
C. To indicate if LDP is sync to the IGP
D. To indicate the status of the LSP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What are two purposes of the BGP scan-time command? (Choose two.)
A. to tune the BGP process which walks the BGP table and confirms the reachability of next hops
B. to allow faster detection of downed BGP peers
C. to improve BGP convergence time
D. to tune the BGP update interval
E. to decrease the effects of unstable routes by increasing the route suppression time
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
When using the show bgp ipv6 unicast summary command to verify the IPv6 BGP session status with the IPv6 BGP peers, you noticed the “St/PfxRcd” status for one of the IPv6 BGP peers is in the “Active” state. What does the “Active” state indicate?
A. The IPv6 BGP session has been established with the IPv6 BGP peer.
B. The router is in the process of sending BGP routing updates to the IPv6 BGP peer.
C. The router is in the process of establishing the IPv6 BGP session with the IPv6 BGP peer.
D. The router is exchanging BGP notification messages with its IPv6 BGP peer.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which three BGP configuration groupings are supported on Cisco IOS XR Software? (Choose three.)
A. peer-group
B. af-group
C. bgp-group
D. session-group
E. neighbor-group
F. as-group
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which AS path access list is used by a multihomed customer to only announce their own address space to their service providers to prevent the multihomed customer from becoming a transit AS?
A. ip as-path access-list permit.*
B. ip as-path access-list permit^$
C. ip as-path access-list permit _$
D. ip as-path access-list permit _^
E. ip as-path access-list permit local-asip as-path access-list deny *
F. ip as-path access-list deny.*ip as-path access-list permit *
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What is recursive lookup in BGP and how does it work?
A. The router looks up the EBGP route and the EBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the EBGP next hop using the IBGP.
B. The router looks up the IBGP route and the IBGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the IBGP next hop using the EBGP.
C. The router looks up the BGP route and the BGP next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS.
Then the router looks up the route to reach the BGP next hop using the IGP.
D. The router looks up the route and the next hop to reach a destination in the remote AS using the IGP. Then the router looks up the route to reach the next hop using BGP.
E. The router perform three routing lookups to determine the route to reach a destination in the remote AS. The first lookup is done using EBGP, the second lookup is done using IBGP, and the third lookup is done using the IGP.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which reserved AS number or range of numbers is used for backward compatibility between old BGP peers using 16-bit AS number and new BGP peers using 32-bit AS number?
A. AS 65001 to 65535
B. AS 65512 to 65535
C. AS 12345
D. AS 23456
E. AS 64001
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which BGP attribute is a set of generic tags that can be used to signal various routing policies between BGP routers?
A. AS path
B. MED
C. weight
D. communities
E. route tags
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a characteristic of dual-multihomed connectivity between an enterprise network and the service provider network or networks? 642-883 dumps
A. An enterprise network that is connected to two or more different service providers with two or more links per service provider and using BGP to exchange routing updates with the service providers.
B. Each service provider announces a default route on each of the links that connect to the customer with a different metric.
C. An enterprise network announces a default route to each service provider.
D. Load balancing can be achieved using the maximum-paths command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
What are two ways to advertise networks into BGP? (Choose two.)
A. using the neighbor router BGP command
B. using a route policy in Cisco IOS XR Software or using a route map in Cisco IOS Software or Cisco IOS XE Software
C. using route redistribution into BGP
D. using the network router BGP command
E. enabling an interface to run BGP using the interface router BGP command
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
Refer to the network diagram in the exhibit.
642-883 dumps
Assuming the IBGP session within AS 64500 was established using the loopback 0 interface between the two routers, by default, what will be the next hop of the routes from AS 64501 when the routes appear on the router running IBGP only in AS 64500?
A. 192.168.101.11
B. 192.168.101.10
C. 10.1.1.1
D. 10.0.1.1
E. 10.1.10.1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
When configuring BGP on Cisco IOS XR Software, which address-family is enabled by default?
A. IPv4 unicast
B. IPv6 unicast
C. VPNv4
D. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast
E. IPv4 unicast and IPv6 unicast and VPNv4
F. No address-family is enabled by default.
Correct Answer: F

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The Best Cisco APE 648-244 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which one is not a parameter to generate the License MAC?
A. NIC duplex
B. IP mask
C. SMTP location
D. time zone
E. SNMP community
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to apply a new identity to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher?
A. utils import afg
B. utils import config
C. utils import xml
D. utils ident new
E. utils ident config
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two applications support the New Identity feature? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In a 100-user Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, what is the utilization of the CPU and memory during business hours in normal operation?
A. 10 percent
B. 17 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 31 percent
E. 37 percent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
When monitoring a host server’s resource utilization, what is the default timeframe to refresh the data in the utilization view?
A. real time
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. manual refresh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command is used to power down a Cisco Unified Communications applications server?
A. utils server shutdown
B. utils system close
C. utils system shutdown
D. config server shutdown
E. config system shutdown
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
DRAG DROP
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