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[2020.11] Share free Microsoft MS-900 exam tips questions and MS-900 dumps from Lead4pass

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q1-1

References:
https://blogs.microsoft.com/on-the-issues/2018/05/17/microsoft-cloud-delivers-when-it-comes-to-energy-efficiency-andcarbon-emission-reductions-study-finds/
https://www.liquidweb.com/blog/private-cloud/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/cloud-adoption/getting-started/azure-resource-access
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/product-categories/security/

 

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You are the Microsoft Office 365 administrator for a company.
The company has the following requirements:
1.
Users must be able to use incompatible applications on a Windows 10 device.
2.
Cloud-based applications must use the same credentials as on-premises applications.
3.
Users must be prevented from copying company data from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices.
You need to determine which technologies should be used for each requirement.
Which technologies should be used? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q2-1

References: https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/modern-desktop/enterprise/windows-virtual-desktop
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-azure-ad-connect https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/intune/what-is-intune

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q3-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/partner-center/csp-documents-and-learning-resources
https://www.qbsgroup.com/news/what-is-the-microsoft-cloud-solution-provider-program/

 

QUESTION 4
DRAG DROP
You are implementing cloud services.
Match each scenario to its service. To answer, drag the appropriate scenario from the column on the left to its cloud
service on the right. Each scenario may be used only once.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q4

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/hybrid-cloud-overview

 

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You implement the Compliance Manager.
You need to retrieve status information for a control task.
Which two options can you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q5

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q5-1

References: https://content.cloudguides.com/guides/Compliance%20Manager

 

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your company uses Microsoft 365 with a business support plan.
You need to identify Service Level Agreements (SLAs) from Microsoft for the support plan.
What response can you expect for each event type? To answer, drag the appropriate responses to the correct event
types. Each response may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between
panes or
scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q6

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/office-365-platform-servicedescription/support

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q7-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/what-is-information-protection

 

QUESTION 8
Your company is evaluating the differences between deployments of Office 365 ProPlus and Office 2016.
You need to determine the installation features of each deployment.
Which installation feature is unique to Office 365 ProPlus?
A. Installation can be completed by using Click-to-Run.
B. Installation can be completed by using System Center Configuration Manager.
C. Installation is available in both 32-bit and 64-bit versions.
D. Installation is on the user\\’s local computer.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
You are the desktop administrator for an organization.
You need to ensure that Office 365 ProPlus is installed on all employee computers.
Which three tools can you use to deploy Office 365 ProPlus? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Microsoft Intune
B. System Center Operations Manager
C. Windows Installer (MSI) package
D. System Center Configuration Manager
E. Office Deployment Tool
Correct Answer: ADE
Microsoft Intune allows you to deploy Office 365 ProPlus applications to Windows 10 devices from the cloud.
System Center Configuration Manager allows you to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers from a local source,
using your Configuration Manager distribution points.
The Office Deployment Tool (ODT) allows you to deploy Office 365 ProPlus to client computers from the Office Content
Delivery Network (CDN) or from a shared folder on your network.
Reference:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/enterprise-mobility-security/deploying-office-365-proplus-with-microsoftintune/ba-p/250292
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/DeployOffice/deploy-office-365-proplus-from-the-cloud
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/DeployOffice/deploy-office-365-proplus-from-a-local-source

 

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You are the Azure administrator for a company. The company uses only Platform as a Service (PaaS).
You need to identify which solution components Microsoft must manage and which solution components your IT staff
must manage.
Match each management owner to its component. To answer, drag the responsible party from the column on the left to
its component on the right. Each party may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q10

References: https://www.itprotoday.com/industry-perspectives/choosing-cloud-model-saas-versus-paas

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
A company has a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. The company plans to use eDiscovery to meet legal discovery
requirements.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-900 practice test q11-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/ediscovery#ediscoverycases
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/manage-ediscovery-cases https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/office365/securitycompliance/assign-ediscovery-permissions

 

QUESTION 12
A company deploys Windows 10 to all devices.
Feature updates to Windows as a service must be installed as frequently as possible.
Which Windows 10 service channel installs updates most frequently?
A. Windows Insider Program Servicing channel
B. Long-term Servicing channel
C. Semi-Annual Servicing channel
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/update/get-started-updates-channels-tools

 

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
A company uses Microsoft 365.
A manager wants to increase the efficiency of team members.
You need to identify the tools that can help improve team effectiveness.
Which tool should you identify for each requirement? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct requirements.
Each tool may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ms-900 practice test q13

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/workplace-analytics/use/explore-metrics-meetings-overview

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Easily pass the Microsoft MS-100 and MS-101 exam tips

How tough are the Microsoft 365 certification exams MS-100 and MS-101?

First, you need to know the most basic Microsoft 365 exam information.

Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services:

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Exam MS-101: Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security:

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

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[part free] Microsoft 365 Identity and Services(MS-100 Exam Practice Questions and Answers)

Full and valid Microsoft 365 Identity and Services exam dump: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-100.html (267 Q&A)

QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You review the Security and Compliance report in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD) as shown in the following exhibit.

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q2

An on-premises Active Directory user account named Allan Yoo is synchronized to Azure AD. You view Allan\\’s

account from Microsoft 365 and notice that his username is set to [email protected] For each of the
following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q2-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q2-2

QUESTION 3
Your company recently purchased a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You enable Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all 500 users in the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD)
tenant.
You need to generate a report that lists all the users who completed the Azure MFA registration process.
What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.
A. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-AzureADUser cmdlet.
B. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-MsolUser cmdlet.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Multi-Factor Authentication? Server Status blade.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Risky sign-ins blade.

Correct Answer: B

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting

QUESTION 4
You need to create the user licenses group. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which group type and control method should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: 

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q4-1

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
You add an app named App1 to the enterprise applications in contoso.com.
You need to configure self-service for App1.
What should you do first?
A. Assign App1 to users and groups.
B. Add an owner to App1.
C. Configure the provisioning mode for App1.
D. Configure an SSO method for App1.
Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/manage-self-service-access

QUESTION 6
Your company uses on-premises Windows Server File Classification Infrastructure 9FCI). Some documents on the on-premises file servers are classified as Confidential.
You migrate the files from the on-premises file servers to Microsoft SharePoint Online.
You need to ensure that you can implement data loss prevention (DLP) policies for the uploaded files based on the
Confidential classification.
What should you do first?
A. From the SharePoint admin center, create a managed property.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, configure a hybrid search.
C. From the Security and Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DlpComplianceRule cmdlet.
D. From the Security and Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DataClassification cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/policy-and-compliance-dlp/newdataclassification?view=exchange-ps

QUESTION 7

You have an on-premises web application that is published by using a URL of https://app.contoso.local.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several external users must be able to connect to the web application.
You need to recommend a solution for external access to the application. The solution must support multi-factor
authentication.
Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From an on-premises server, install a connector and then publish the app.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, enable an Application Proxy.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a conditional access policy.
D. From an on-premises server, install an Authentication Agent.
E. Republish the web application by using https://app.contoso.local.
Correct Answer: AB

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy-add-on-premisesapplication

QUESTION 8
Your company has 10 offices.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 500 client computers.
Each office is configured as a separate subnet.
You discover that one of the offices has the following:
Computers that have several preinstalled applications
Computers that use nonstandard computer names
Computers that have Windows 10 preinstalled
Computers that are in a workgroup
You must configure the computers to meet the following corporate requirements:
All the computers must be joined to the domain.
All the computers must have computer names that use a prefix of CONTOSO.
All the computers must only have approved corporate applications installed.
You need to recommend a solution to redeploy computers. The solution must minimize deployment time.A. a provisioning package
B. wipe and load refresh
C. Windows Autopilot
D. an in-place upgrade
Correct Answer: A

By using a Provisioning, IT administrators can create a self-contained package that contains all of the configurations,
settings, and apps that need to be applied to a device. Incorrect Answers:
C: With Windows Autopilot the user can set up pre-configure devices without the need to consult their IT administrator.
D: Use the In-Place Upgrade option when you want to keep all (or at least most) existing applications.

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-10-deployment-scenarios
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/deployment/windows-autopilot/windows-autopilot

QUESTION 9
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q9

Another administrator removes User1 from Group1 and adds Group2 to Group1.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q9-1

QUESTION 10
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
You purchase a domain named contoso.com from a registrar and add all the required DNS records.
You create a user account named User1. User1 is configured to sign in as [email protected]
You need to configure User1 to sign in as [email protected]
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q10-1

QUESTION 11
You use Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch) to manage devices.
Your company uses the following types of devices:
Windows 10 Windows 8.1 Android iOS
Which devices can be managed by using co-management?
A. Windows 10 and Windows 8.1 only. Windows 10, Android, and iOS only
C. Windows 10 only
D. Windows 10, Windows 8.1, Android, and iOS
Correct Answer: D

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/core/plan-design/choose-a-device-managementsolution#bkmk_intune

QUESTION 12
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use the Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
You create a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to deploy Microsoft Office 365 ProPlus applications to all the client computers at your company.
You prepare the following XML file for the planned deployment. 

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q13

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-100 exam questions q13-1

[part free] Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security(MS-101 Exam Practice Questions and Answers)

Full and valid Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security exam dump: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-101.html (214 Q&A)

QUESTION 1
From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a retention policy named Policy1.
You need to prevent all users from disabling the policy or reducing the retention period.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q1

QUESTION 2
You need to meet the technical requirement for the SharePoint administrator. What should you do? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q2-1

QUESTION 3

On which server should you install the Azure ATP sensor?
A. Server 1
B. Server 2
C. Server 3
D. Server 4
E. Server 5
Correct Answer: A

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/atp-capacity-planning

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure pilot co-management.
You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1.
You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: You create a device configuration profile from the Intune admin center.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have several devices enrolled in Microsoft Intone.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that includes the users shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q5

You add User3 as a device enrollment manager in Intune.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area: lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q5-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q5-2

QUESTION 6
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to configure Microsoft 365 to meet the following requirements:
Malware found in email attachments must be quarantined for 20 days.
The email address of senders to your company must be verified.
Which two options should you configure in the Security and Compliance admin center? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q6-1

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.
Your company implements Windows Information Protection (WIP).
You need to modify which users and applications are affected by WIP.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options m the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q7-1

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com that is synced to Microsoft Azure Active
Directory (Azure AD).
You manage Windows 10 devices by using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager (Current Branch).
You configure pilot co-management.
You add a new device named Device1 to the domain. You install the Configuration Manager client on Device1.
You need to ensure that you can manage Device1 by using Microsoft Intune and Configuration Manager.
Solution: You add Device1 to a Configuration Manager device collection.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to implement Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) for all the supported devices enrolled in
mobile device management (MDM).
What should you include in the device configuration profile? To answer, select- appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q9-1

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default domain named contoso.com. Three files were created on
February 1, 2019, as shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10

On March 1, 2019, you create two retention labels named Label1 and Label2.
The settings for Lable1 are configured as shown in the Label1 exhibit. (Click the Label1 tab.)

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-1

The settings for Lable2 are configured as shown in the Label2 exhibit. (Click the Label2 tab.)

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-2

You apply the retention labels to Exchange email, SharePoint sites, and OneDrive accounts. For each of the following
statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q10-4

Box 1: No
Retention overrides deletion.
Box 2: No
Content in a document library will be moved to the first-stage Recycle Bin within 7 days of disposition, and then
permanently deleted another 93 days after that. Thus 100 days in total.
Box 3: No
Items in an Exchange mailbox will be permanently deleted within 14 days of disposition.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/disposition-reviews

QUESTION 11
Your company uses Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Windows Defender ATP contains the
device groups are shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11

You onboard computers to Windows Defender ATP as shown in the following table.

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11-1

Of which groups are Computer1 and Computer2 members? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer
area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q11-3

QUESTION 12
You need to meet the requirement for the legal department
Which three actions should you perform in sequence from the Security and Compliance admin center? To answer,
move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ms-101 exam questions q12-1

QUESTION 13
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to enable Microsoft Azure Information Protection.
You need to ensure that only the members of a group named PilotUsers can protect content.
What should you do?
A. Run the Add-AadrmRoleBasedAdministrator cmdlet.
B. Create an Azure Information Protection policy.
C. Configure the protection activation status for Azure Information Protection.
D. Run the Set-AadrmOnboardingControlPolicy cmdlet.
Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/kemckinn/2018/05/17/creating-labels-for-azure-information-protection/ 

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This exam tests candidates seeking CCNP Collaboration on their ability for implementing a Cisco Unified Collaboration solution in a multisite environment.

It covers Uniform Resource Identifier (URI) dialing, globalized call routing, Intercluster Lookup Service and Global Dial Plan Replication, Cisco Service Advertisement Framework and Call Control Discovery, tail-end hop-off, Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, Enhanced Location Call Admission Control (CAC) and Automated Alternate Routing (AAR), and mobility features such as Device Mobility, Cisco Extension Mobility, and Cisco Unified Mobility.

The exam also describes the role of Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) Control and the Cisco Expressway Series and how they interact with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.

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Latest updates Cisco 300-075 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route
when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q2

A user in RTP calls a phone in San Jose during congestion with Call Forward No Bandwidth (CFNB) configured to reach
cell phone 4085550150. The user in RTP sees the message “Not Enough Bandwidth” on their phone and hears a fast
busy tone. Which two conditions can correct this issue? (Choose two.)
A. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
B. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have AAR Group value of AAR under the AAR Settings.
C. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
D. The calling phone (RTP) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
E. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 914085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
F. The called phone (San Jose) needs to have the AAR destination mask of 4085550150 configured under the AAR
Settings.
Correct Answer: BF
Automated alternate routing (AAR) provides a mechanism to reroute calls through the PSTN or other network by using
an alternate number when Cisco Unified Communications Manager blocks a call due to insufficient location bandwidth.
With automated alternate routing, the caller does not need to hang up and redial the called party.

QUESTION 3
Which symbol is required for globalized call routing?
A. +
B. *
C. %
D. /
E. ;
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the default value for the Drop Ad Hoc Conference service parameter?
A. Never
B. When No On-Net Parties Remain in the Conference
C. When No Off-Net Parties Remain in the Conference
D. Drop Ad Hoc Conference When Creator Leaves
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
When configuring a secure SIP trunk, to which Cisco Unified Communications manager trust store must you upload the
Cisco VCS certificate?
A. TVS-trust
B. tomcat-trust
C. ipsec-trust
D. CallManager-trust
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When you configure TEHO for long-distance calls and use the local PSTN gateways as fallback, how many route
patterns do you require for a cluster with five sites that are located in different area codes?
A. 6 when using a local route group
B. 10 when not using a local route group
C. 5 when using a local route group
D. 15 when not using a local route group
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
There are two call control systems in this item.
The Cisco UCM is controlling the DX650, the Cisco Jabber for Windows Client, and the 9971 Video IP Phone.
The Cisco VCS is controlling the SX20, the Cisco TelePresence MCU, and the Cisco Jabber TelePresence for
Windows.
SX20 System information:lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7

DX650 Configuration:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-1

MRGL:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-2

DP:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-3

Locations:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-4

AARG:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-5

CSS:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-6

Movie Failure:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-7

Movie Settings:

lead4pass 300-075 exam question q7-8

A new DX650 IP phone with MAC address D0C7.8914.132D, IP address is 172.18.32.119 has been added to the Cisco
Unified Communications Manager, but is not registering properly. What is causing this failure?
A. Device Pool cannot be default.
B. The DX650 is the incorrect calling search space.
C. The DX650 Phones does not support SIP.
D. The location Hub_None has not been activated.
E. The DX650\\’s MAC address is incorrect in the Cisco UCM.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
A presales engineer is working on a quote for a major customer and must evaluate how many Cisco VCS Expressway
traversal call licenses for which to plan.
Calls to and from which three routes must the engineer include in the tally? (Choose three.)
A. gateway
B. Cisco 9971 Endpoint
C. border controllers
D. gatekeeper
E. SIP trunk
F. VCS
Correct Answer: CDF
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/telepresence-video-communication-server-vcs/118872-technote-vcs-00.html

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-075 exam question q9

How does the Cisco Unified Communications Manager advertise dn-block 1?
A. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:
B. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:1972555
C. 4XXX
D. 4XXX and the ToDID will 0:+ 1972555
E. 19725554XXX
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about Zones on Cisco Video Communication Server (VCS) are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You can register endpoints to default zone.
B. Bandwidth for calls between endpoints in the same zone cannot be restricted.
C. A neighbor zone connects Cisco VCS to Cisco VCS Expressway for NAT, PAT, and firewall traversal.
D. Endpoints are associated to default subzone or any customized subzone depending on the IP address of the
endpoint.
E. A neighbor zone connects Cisco VCS Core to other systems via SIP or H.323.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 11
The network administrator at Enterprise X is creating the guidelines for a new IPT deployment consisting of a large
number of remote offices. Every user within Enterprise X is assigned a directory number of 5 digits. Which option might
cause an issue in a multisite deployment?
A. Overlapping DID ranges are allocated to each site.
B. The maximum number of IP phones are in use at each remote site.
C. MoH cannot be provided for the remote sites.
D. All media streams are necessarily routed through the central office for calls to establish correctly.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which route pattern is the best match in Cisco Unified Communications Manager for a dialed number of +1 412 555
1234?
A. \+1412.XXXXXXX
B. +1!
C. ^\+1412…….$
D. \+1.!
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An engineer must configure a new Audio Codec Preference list for a new site in their network. Which type of list does
this configuration establish?
A. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Locations
B. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Device Mobility Groups
C. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Device Pools
D. ordered list of preferred Audio Codecs used in Regions
Correct Answer: D

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This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco Identify Services Engine, including:

  • Architecture and deployment
  • Policy enforcement
  • Web Auth and guest services
  • Profiler
  • BYOD
  • Endpoint compliance
  • Network access device administration

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Latest updates Cisco 300-715 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which supplicant(s) and server(s) are capable of supporting EAR-CHAINING?
A. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Identity Service Engine
B. Cisco AnyConnect NAM and Cisco Access Control Server
C. Cisco Secure Services Client and Cisco Access Control Server
D. Windows Native Supplicant and Cisco Identity Service Engine
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit:

lead4pass 300-715 exam questions q2

Which command is typed within the CU of a switch to view the troubleshooting output?
A. show authentication sessions mac 000e.84af.59af details
B. show authentication registrations
C. show authentication interface gigabitethemet2/0/36
D. show authentication sessions method

Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Does a user report that a switch\\’s RADIUS accounting packets are not being seen on the Cisco ISE server Which the command is the user missing in the switch\\’s configuration?
A. radius-server vsa send accounting
B. aaa accounting network default start-stop group radius
C. aaa accounting resource default start-stop group radius
D. aaa accounting exec default start-stop group radius
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What are the two components of the posture requirement when configuring the Cisco ISE posture? (Choose two)
A. updates
B. remediation actions
C. Client Provisioning portal
D. conditions
E. access policy
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 5
What service can be enabled on the Cisco ISE node to identify the types of devices connecting to a network?
A. MAB
B. profiling
C. posture
D. central web authentication
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
During BYOD flow, from where does a Microsoft Windows PC download the Network Setup Assistant?
A. Cisco App Store
B. Microsoft App Store
C. Cisco ISE directly
D. Native OTA functionality
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which radius attribute can be used to dynamically assign the inactivity active timer for MAB users from the Cisco ISE
node?
A. radius-server timeout
B. idle-timeout attribute
C. termination-action attribute
D. session-timeout attribute
Correct Answer: B
When the inactivity timer is enabled, the switch monitors the activity from authenticated endpoints. When the inactivity timer expires, the switch removes the authenticated session. The inactivity timer for MAB can be statically configured on
the switch port, or it can be dynamically assigned using the RADIUS idle-timeout attribute (Attribute 28)

 

QUESTION 8
What gives Cisco ISE an option to scan endpoints for vulnerabilities?
A. authorization policy
B. authentication policy
C. authentication profile
D. authorization profile
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9

Drag the steps to configure a Cisco ISE node as a primary administration node from the left into the correct order on the
night.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-715 exam questions q9

Choose Administration > System > Deployment.
The Register button will be disabled initially. To enable this button, you must configure a Primary PAN.
Step 2
Check the checkbox next to the current node, and click Edit.
Step 3
Click Make Primary to configure your Primary PAN.
Step 4
Enter data on the General Settings tab.

Step 5
Click Save to save the node configuration.

 

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of the IP HTTP server command on a switch?
A. It enables the https server for users for web authentication
B. It enables MAB authentication on the switch
C. It enables the switch to redirect users for web authentication.
D. It enables dot1x authentication on the switch.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which port does cisco ISE use for native supplicant provisioning of a windows computer?
A. TCP/UDP 8905
B. TCP 8443
C. TCP/UDP 8909
D. TCP 443
Correct Answer: C
TCP: 80, 8443 (web or Cisco NAC agent installation) Note TCP port 8443 is enabled by default, configurable, and
corresponds to Guest configuration TCP: 8905 (Cisco NAC agent update) TCP: 8909 and UDP: 8909 (web, Cisco NAC
Agent, supplicant provisioning wizard installation)

 

QUESTION 12
Which personas can a Cisco ISE node assume\\’?
A. policy service, gatekeeping, and monitoring
B. administration, policy service, and monitoring
C. administration, policy service, gatekeeping
D. administration, monitoring, and gatekeeping
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_dis_deploy.html

The persona or personas of a node determine the services provided by a node. An ISE node can assume any or all of
the following personas: Administration, Policy Service, and Monitoring. The menu options that are available through the administrative user interface is dependent on the role and personas that an ISE node assumes. See Cisco ISE Nodes
and Available Menu Options for more information.

 

QUESTION 13
Cisco ISE antivirus remediation policy options?
A. Upload a file
B. Antivirus
C. Uniform resource locator
Correct Answer: AC
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/identity-services-engine/116143-config-cise-posture-00.html

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This exam tests your knowledge of implementing applications that automate and extend Cisco Collaboration platforms, including:

  • Programming concepts
  • APIs and automation protocols
  • Python programming

Latest Updates Cisco 300-835 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

After the AXL query ns: update phone is used to upgrade a phone configuration successfully, the phone does not reflect
the change. Which other methods must be performed for the change to take effect?
A. ns:getPhone
B. ns: restart phone
C. ns:reboot phone
D. ns:savePhone

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which URI for XML APIs is used in Cisco Webex Meetings to manage users, meetings, events, and trainings?
A. https://api.webex.com/v1/
B. https://api.webex.com/WBXService/XMLService
C. https://api.webex.com/v1/meetings
D. https://api.webex.com/MeetingsService/XMLService

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

DRAG DROP
Drag-drop the code to create a valid AXL API script to create a new Route Partition, using the Python Zeep library. Not
all options are used.
Select and Place:

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q3

Correct Answer:

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q3-1

QUESTION 4

An In-Room Control Panel can be configured as “global” (always available). Which order panel type is supported?
A. Background
B. Do Not Disturb
C. Never
D. Out-of-Call

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What is the benefit of using Python virtual environments?
A. It isolates dependencies of every project from the system and each other.
B. It allows Python to differentiate between package versions.
C. It frees the developer from installing the project dependencies.
D. It puts dependent packages in a common site-packages directory.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

An existing user (identified by userId) needs to be allowed to host Webex meetings. Which API call is used to assign the
new license?
A. PUT /license/{userId}
B. POST /people/{userId}
C. PUT /people/{userId}
D. POST /license/{userId}

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Using the Finesse REST APIs coupled with the Finesse notifications, which two use cases can be accomplished?
(Choose two.)
A. Add video calling capabilities to an existing application such as a CRM.
B. Add outbound call capabilities to an existing application such as a CRM.
C. Develop a secure monitoring application that captures the agent\’s states and dialog information of every agent in
the contact center system.
D. Develop a fully functioning custom agent desktop that has call control, workflows, and client logging.
E. Develop a fully functioning custom agent desktop for chat, email, and SMS interactions including the content of the
chat, email, and SMS.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 8

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q8

Refer to the exhibit. A Webex Meetings XML API HTTP request message with several invalid portions is shown. Which
reference points to a line in the exhibit that correctly indicates that this is a LstsummaryUser request?
A. line 17
B. line 1
C. line 18
D. line 14

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

Which two capabilities can be implemented in a custom application using the Cisco Unified IP Phone Services API?
(Choose two.)
A. Authenticate the phone to the network.
B. Display corporate directory information.
C. Play multicast messages.
D. Upgrade phone firmware.
E. Create new phone devices.

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 10

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q10

Refer to the exhibit. This exhibit is a simple Python script to monitor call activity for a local Webex room device. Which
code snippet listens for call events and completes the script?
A. await client.xfeedback( [Status\\',Call\’, Status\\'], callback, False) B. await client.subscribe( [Feedback\’, Call\\',Status\’], callback, False)
C. await client.subscribe( [Status\\',Call\’, Status\\'], callback, False) D. await client.xfeedback( [Feedback\’, Call\\',Status\’], callback, False)

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q11

Refer to the exhibit. Based on this Webex Meetings XML API schema snippet, which XML object is a valid element?

ciscoexampdf 300-835 q11-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

Which type of endpoint is used by the Cisco Unified JTAPI implementation in Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. gateways
B. gatekeepers
C. phones
D. SIP trunks

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which two methods can be used to add a custom UI panel to a Webex room device? (Choose two.)
A. Import an existing panel configuration file by connecting a USB storage drive to the device.
B. Use xAPI to push a JSON panel configuration to the device.
C. Create a panel using the device UI Extensions Editor (previously In-Room Controls).
D. Restore a device backup file present on a PC that contains a panel configuration.
E. From a T-shell session, use the git command to merge the XML configuration of a panel.

Correct Answer: AE

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This exam tests your knowledge of collaboration cloud and edge solutions, including:

  • Cisco Unified IM and Presence
  • Expressway configurations
  • Cisco WebEx Teams hybrid and emerging technologies

Latest Updates Cisco 300-820 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q1

Refer to the exhibit. When configuring a search rule that routes call to a zone, what occurs when 13358 is dialed?
A. 13358 is replaced by 135 and then is sent to the local zone.
B. 13358 is replaced by 135 and remains in the same zone.
C. 13358 is replaced by 135 and then is sent to the traversal zone.
D. 13358 is sent directly to the traversal zone.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Cisco Collaboration endpoints are exchanging encrypted signaling messages.
What is one major complication in implementing NAT ALG for voice and video devices?
A. Internal endpoints cannot use addresses from the private address space.
B. The NAT ALG cannot inspect the contents of encrypted signaling messages.
C. NAT ALG introduces jitter in the voice path.
D. Source addresses cannot provide the destination addresses that remote endpoints should use for return packets.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q3

Refer to the exhibit. Which description of the transformation is true?
A. It converts [email protected]: to [email protected]
B. It changes all patterns that begin with [email protected]: to [email protected]
C. It changes [email protected]: to [email protected]
D. It converts [email protected]: to [email protected]

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q4

Refer to the exhibit. Which two numbers match the regular expression? (Choose two.)
A. d20d16d20d22
B. 2091652010224
C. 209165200225
D. d209d165d200d224
E. 209165200224

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 5

ciscoexampdf 300-820 q5

Refer to the exhibit. An Expressway-C and Expressway-E are configured for B2B calling and the Expressway-E zone is
set to TLS Verify Currently, calls do not reach the Expressway-C. The Traversal Client zone on the Expressway-C for
B2B reports the information in the exhibit for the Peer 1 address.
Which action resolves this error?
A. Configure the Expressway-C Traversal Client zone Peer 1 address with the fully qualified domain name of the
Expressway-E.
B. Configure the Expressway-C Traversal Client zone transport protocol with TCP.
C. Add a server certificate to the Expressway-C that is signed by a certificate authority.
D. Add an intermediate certificate to the Expressway-C that is signed by a certificate authority.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6

Which two statements about Mobile and Remote Access certificate are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Core can use a private CA-signed certificate.
B. You must upload the root certificates in the phone trust store.
C. Expressway must generate a certificate signing request.
D. Expressway Edge must use a public CA-signed certificate.
E. The Jabber client can work with a public or private CA-signed certificate.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7

Which two statements about Expressway media traversal are true? (Choose two.)
A. Expressway Control is the traversal server installed in the DMZ.
B. The Expressway Edge must be put in a firewall DMZ segment.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager zone can be either a traversal server or client.
D. The Unified Communications traversal zone can be used for Mobile and Remote Access.
E. Both Expressway Edge interfaces can be NATed.

Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8

In a Mobile and Remote Access deployment, where must communications be encrypted with TLS?
A. Cisco Expressway-E and endpoints outside the enterprise
B. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Unified Communications Manager, and IMandP
C. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Expressway-C, Cisco Expressway-E, and endpoints outside the enterprise

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which DNS record and port combination must be resolved externally for Mobile and Remote Access to be used?
A. _collab-edge on port 8443
B. _cisco-uds-edge on port 5061
C. _collab-edge on port 5061
D. _cisco-uds on port 8443

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which service is available in a cloud-based deployment using Cisco Webex Messenger?
A. Presence
B. Phone services
C. Voicemail
D. Call forward services

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the purpose of using ICE for Mobile and Remote Access endpoints in the Cisco Collaboration infrastructure?
A. ICE controls the bandwidth usage for Cisco Collaboration endpoints if the endpoints are located outside the company
network.
B. ICE enables Cisco Collaboration endpoints to determine if there is direct connectivity between them.
C. ICE uses FAST updates to optimize the video quality in case of packet loss. This technology is available only from
Cisco Unified CM version 11.5 and later.
D. ICE enablement allows for the Cisco Collaboration endpoint to register through Expressway servers to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager behind a firewall.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

When determining why Mobile and Remote Access to Cisco TelePresence equipment does not work anymore for an
organization. There are several administrators and configuration changes that could have happened without anyone
knowing. Internal communication seems to be working, but no external system can register or call anywhere. Gathering
symptoms, you also discover that no internal systems can call out either.
What is TraversalZone missing that causes this issue?
A. link to the DefaultZone
B. pipe to the DefaultZone
C. SIP trunk to the DefaultZone
D. route pattern to the DefaultZone

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Jabber cannot log in via Mobile and Remote Access. You inspect Expressway-C logs and see this error message:
XCP_JABBERD Detail=”Unable to connect to host \’%IP%\’, port 7400:(111) Connection refused”
Which is the cause of this issue?
A. Rich Media Session licenses are not activated on Expressway-E.
B. Expressway-E is listening to the wrong IP interface.
C. The destination port for Expressway-E is set to 7400 instead of 8443 on the Expressway-C.
D. The XCP Service is not activated on Expressway-E.

Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

What is the benefit of data modeling languages like YANG?
A. They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system.
B. They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs.
C. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient.
D. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.)
A. TCP window size
B. TCP MSS
C. IP MTU
D. DF bit clear
E. MTU ignore

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3

Which statement about TLS is true when using RESTCONF to write configurations on network devices?
A. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server.
B. It is no supported on Cisco devices.
C. It required certificates for authentication.
D. It is used for HTTP and HTTPs requests.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Refer to exhibit.

ciscoexampdf 350-401 q4

VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and
SW1 is the VTP server. Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50?
A. SW1 (config)#vtp pruning
B. SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent
C. SW2(config)=vtp pruning
D. SW1 (config >»vtp mode transparent

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?
A. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane.
B. maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency table.
C. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler.
D. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6

A client with IP address 209 16b 201 2b must access a web server on port 80 at 209 I6b.200.22b. To allow this traffic.
an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting
to
the webserver.
Which statement allows this traffic?
A. permit TCP host 209 165 200 225 eq 80 hosts 209.165.201.25
B. permit TCP host 209 165.201 25 hosts 209.165.200.225 eq 80
C. permit TCP host 209.165.200 225 It 80 host 209.165.201.25
D. permit TCP host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

When reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?
A. Mismatched OSPF network type
B. Mismatched areas
C. Mismatched MTU size
D. Mismatched OSPF link costs

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

Refer to the exhibit.

ciscoexampdf 350-401 q8

Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding.
The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An
engineer
enters the spanning-tree port-priority 32 commands on GO/1 on SW2. but the port remains blocked.
Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Lmk2 to resolve the issue?
A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1.
B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1.
C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2.
D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9

Which exhibit displays a valid JSON file?

ciscoexampdf 350-401 q9
ciscoexampdf 350-401 q9-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?
A. NTP server
B. PKI server
C. REDIUS server
D. TACACS server

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Which statement about VXLAN is true?
A. VXLAN uses TCP 35 the transport protocol over the physical data cento network.
B. VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits. which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the
same network.
C. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router
boundaries.
D. VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12

A network is being migrated from IPV4 to IPV6 using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100%
IPV6 enabled.
In a dual-stack network with two dual-stack NetFlow collections, how many flow exporters are needed per network the device in the flexible NetFlow configuration?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13

Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel?
A. MTU
B. Window size
C. MRU
D. MSS

Correct Answer: D

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accessories, cabling, and interfaces; understand the Cisco IOS software operating modes and identify commonly found software;
and be able to use the Cisco Command Line Interface (CLI) to connect and service products.

Latest updates Cisco 100-490 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

What is the line speed of a DS0 in North America?
A. 16 kbps
B. 32 kbps
C. 64 kbps
D. 128 kbps

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

When you deploy Cisco Catalyst 3850 Series switches, which two modes of operation can you choose from?
A. Active mode and Standby mode
B. Install mode and Bundle mode
C. Boot mode and Run mode
D. Exec mode and User mode

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

What is the Windows-based program that executes the ping command to test network connectivity?
A. cmd
B. Find
C. Start
D. ipconfig

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?
A. highest two bits
B. lowest two bits
C. highest four bits
D. lowest four bits

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which two ports on a laptop are used to gain console access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
A. DB-9
B. USB
C. DVI
D. RJ-11
E. RJ-45 Ethernet

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6

Which command initiates the transfer of a Cisco IOS image over IP from ROMMON?
A. Xmodem
B. copy TFTP: flash:
C. copy flash: TFTP:
D. tftpdnld

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which two Cisco Nexus 3400 Series switches support 400-Gbps Ethernet ports? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 34180YC
B. Cisco Nexus 34200YC-SM
C. Cisco Nexus 3432D-S
D. Cisco Nexus 3408-S
E. Cisco Nexus 3464C

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus3400s/sw/922/interfaces/configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_3400_NX-OS_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide_922/b_Cisco_Nexus_3400_NXO_Interfaces_Configuration_Guide_9z_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 8

Which command displays a list of file systems that are available on Cisco devices?
A. show memory
B. show directory
C. show file system
D. show version

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9

Which type of physical connector does a Gigabit Ethernet port typically use?
A. RJ-9
B. RJ-45
C. DB-25
D. RJ-11

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10

Which Windows-based text editor is preferred for working with a simple text document, such as a Cisco configuration?
A. Microsoft Word
B. Microsoft Notepad
C. Microsoft Access
D. Microsoft Excel

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11

Which two pieces of information are displayed when you use the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 2 address
B. keepalive
C. Layer 3 address
D. encapsulation type
E. interface status

Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12

Which method is the fastest way to recover a software version that supports a USB flash port on a Cisco device?
A. TFTP command
B. xmodem transfer command
C. copy command with USB memory
D. copy TFTP flash: command

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13

Which type of memory is used to permanently store the Cisco IOS Software?
A. NVRAM
B. flash
C. SRAM
D. DRAM

Correct Answer: A

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  • Automation
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Latest Updates Cisco 350-601 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q1

An engineer configures a new application profile using the REST API and receives this error message.
Which method can be used before the application profile can be configured?
A. GET to aaaListDomains
B. POST to aaaRefresh
C. POST to aaaLogin
D. POST to analog out
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
What is a feature of NFS?
A. zone-based access control
B. Kerberos-based security model
C. block-based file access
D. role-based access control
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What is the advantage of streaming telemetry over SNMP?
A. on-change traps sent to a receiver
B. periodic push-based subscription messages
C. periodic polling of the device status
D. MD5-based authentication on polling
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibitciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q4

What is the result of implementing this configuration?
A. The Fibre Channel interface is configured for SPAN.
B. The Fibre Channel interface is configured for source distribution.
C. The Fibre Channel interlace is configured for FSPF.
D. The Fibre Channel interface is configured for synchronization distribution.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which two authentication types does Cisco UCS Manager support when configuring authentication? (Choose two.)
A. PAM
B. local
C. 802.1X
D. Kerberos
E. LDAP
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q6

An engineer is implementing zoning on two Cisco MDS switches. After the implementation is finished, E Ports that
connect the two Cisco MDS switches to become isolated.
What is wrong with the implementation?
A. Zones are local to the MDS switch and name service must be used to activate the connection between E Ports.
B. Different zone set names must be configured on both MDS switches.
C. Zones must have the same name on both MDS switches for the E Ports to function.
D. E Ports on both MDS switches must be configured as F Ports for the zoning to function.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q7

What is the reason the system-fm-vrrp checkpoint was created?
A. The VRRP process crashed and the checkpoint was automatically created.
B. The VRRP service restarted and the checkpoint was automatically created.
C. The network administrator manually created it.
D. The VRRP-enabled feature has been disabled.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
An engineer is implementing NetFlow on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch.
Drag and drop the NetFlow commands from the left into the correct order they must be entered on the right.
Select and Place:ciscoexampdf 350-601 exam questions q8

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-7000-series-switches/112213-netflownexus7000-nsox-configex.html

 

QUESTION 9
Which two statements about the process of performing an EPLD upgrade on a Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The upgrade can be performed from the standby supervisor module.
B. The upgrade process disrupts only the module that is being upgraded.
C. The active supervisor can be upgraded.
D. If an upgrade is interrupted, the upgrade continues after a connection is restored.
E. Modules must be online to be upgraded.
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 10
A customer has a requirement for an automation solution that supports periodically acquiring configuration from a
centralized server and aligning UCS servers to their desired state.
Which open-source tool meets this requirement?
A. SaltStack
B. Kubernetes
C. Puppet
D. Terraform
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
An engineer enters these commands while in EEM on a Cisco Nexus 9000 Series Switch
event manager applet Backup-config event timer watchdog time 1800 name timer event CLI match “copy running-config
startup-config”
What is the result of applying this configuration?
A. It generates an error because no action is mentioned.
B. It executes the copy running-config startup-coring command.
C. It saves the running configuration every 1800 seconds.
D. It blocks the copy running-config startup-config command.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which product includes prebuilt templates that can be used to customize fabric deployments?
A. Cisco Tetration
B. Cisco Data Center Network Manager
C. Cisco ACI
D. Cisco UCS Manager
Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Shared
D. Session
Correct Answer: B
https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-401/key-escrow-3/

QUESTION 2
An employee uses RDP to connect back to the office network.
If RDP is misconfigured, which of the following security exposures would this lead to?
A. A virus on the administrator\\’s desktop would be able to sniff the administrator\\’s username and password.
B. Result in an attacker being able to phish the employee\\’s username and password.
C. A social engineering attack could occur, resulting in the employee\\’s password being extracted.
D. A man in the middle attack could occur, resulting the employee\\’s username and password being captured.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Ann, a user, states that her machine has been behaving erratically over the past week. She has experienced slowness
and input lag and found text files that appear to contain pieces of her emails or online conversations with coworkers.
The
technician runs a standard virus scan but detects nothing.
Which of the following types of malware has infected the machine?
A. Ransomware
B. Rootkit
C. Backdoor
D. Keylogger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address. The
socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do
to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection?
A. tracert
B. netstat
C. ping
D. nslookup
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) has decided it is not cost effective to implement safeguards against a known
vulnerability. Which of the following risk responses does this BEST describe?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Mitigation
D. Acceptance
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A security analyst has received the following alert snippet from the HIDS appliance:lead4pass sy0-501 exam question q6

Given the above logs, which of the following is the cause of the attack?
A. The TCP ports on destination are all open
B. FIN, URG, and PSH flags are set in the packet header
C. TCP MSS is configured improperly
D. There is improper Layer 2 segmentation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A security engineer is configuring a wireless network with EAP-TLS. Which of the following activities is a requirement for
this configuration?
A. Setting up a TACACS+ server
B. Configuring federation between authentication servers
C. Enabling TOTP
D. Deploying certificates to endpoint devices
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Joe a computer forensic technician responds to an active compromise of a database server. Joe first collects
information in memory, then collects network traffic and finally conducts an image of the hard drive.
Which of the following procedures did Joe follow?
A. Order of volatility
B. Chain of custody
C. Recovery procedure
D. Incident isolation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A Chief Information Officer (CIO) drafts an agreement between the organization and its employees. The agreement
outlines ramifications for releasing information without consent and/or approvals. Which of the following BEST describes
this type of agreement?
A. ISA
B. NDA
C. MOU
D. SLA
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
An administrator intends to configure an IPSec solution that provides ESP with integrity protection, but not confidentiality
protection. Which of the following AES modes of operation would meet this integrity-only requirement?
A. HMAC
B. PCBC
C. CBC
D. GCM
E. CFB
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the main difference an XSS vulnerability and a CSRF vulnerability?
A. XSS needs the attacker to be authenticated to the trusted server.
B. XSS does not need the victim to be authenticated to the trusted server.
C. CSRF needs the victim to be authenticated to the trusted server.
D. CSRF does not need the victim to be authenticated to the trusted server.
E. CSRF does not need the attacker to be authenticated to the trusted server.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
As part of a new industry regulation, companies are required to utilize secure, standardized OS settings. A technical
must ensure the OS settings are hardened. Which of the following is the BEST way to do this?
A. Use a vulnerability scanner.
B. Use a configuration compliance scanner.
C. Use a passive, in-line scanner.
D. Use a protocol analyzer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
A Security Officer on a military base needs to encrypt several smart phones that will be going into the field.
Which of the following encryption solutions should be deployed in this situation?
A. Elliptic curve
B. One-time pad
C. 3DES
D. AES-256
Correct Answer: D

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