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The latest update of Microsoft Fundamentals SC-900 dumps exam practice questions

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Microsoft SC-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) feature can you use to provide just-in-time (JIT) access to manage Azure
resources?

A. conditional access policies
B. Azure AD Identity Protection
C. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
D. authentication method policies

Correct Answer: C

Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) provides just-in-time privileged access to Azure AD and Azure
resources

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant.
You create sensitivity labels as shown in the Sensitivity Labels exhibit.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2

The Confidential/External sensitivity label is configured to encrypt files and emails when applied to content. The
sensitivity labels are published as shown in the Published exhibit.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2-2

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/sensitivity-labels?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 3

Which score measures an organization\’s progress in completing actions that help reduce risks associated to data
protection and regulatory standards?

A. Microsoft Secure Score
B. Productivity Score
C. Secure score in Azure Security Center
D. Compliance score

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/compliance-manager?view=o365-worldwide
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/compliance-score-calculation?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 4

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q4-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/overview

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q5-1

Biometrics templates are stored locally on a device.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-overview

QUESTION 6

HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q6-1

Microsoft Azure Sentinel is a scalable, cloud-native, security information event management (SIEM) and security
orchestration automated response (SOAR) solution.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/overview

QUESTION 7

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q7-1

Box 1: Yes
The MailItemsAccessed event is a mailbox auditing action and is triggered when mail data is accessed by mail protocols and mail clients.

Box 2: No
Basic Audit retains audit records for 90 days.
Advanced Audit retains all Exchange, SharePoint, and Azure Active Directory audit records for one year. This is accomplished by a default audit log retention policy that retains any audit record that contains the value of Exchange,
SharePoint, or AzureActiveDirectory for the Workload property (which indicates the service in which the activity occurred) for one year.

Box 3: yes
Advanced Audit in Microsoft 365 provides high-bandwidth access to the Office 365 Management Activity API.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/advanced-audit?view=o365-worldwide
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/auditing-solutions-overview?view=o365-worldwide#licensingrequirements
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/microsoft-365-service-descriptions/microsoft-365-tenantlevel-services-licensing-guidance/microsoft-365-security-compliance-licensing-guidance#advanced-audit

QUESTION 8

You plan to implement a security strategy and place multiple layers of defense throughout a network infrastructure.
Which security methodology does this represent?

A. threat modeling
B. identity as the security perimeter
C. defense in depth
D. the shared responsibility model

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/secure-network-connectivity-azure/2-what-is-defense-indepth

QUESTION 9

Which Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) feature can you use to restrict Microsoft Intune-managed devices from
accessing corporate resources?

A. network security groups (NSGs)
B. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
C. conditional access policies
D. resource locks

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q10-1

Microsoft Defender for Identity is a cloud-based security solution that leverages your on-premises Active Directory
signals to identify, detect, and investigate advanced threats, compromised identities, and malicious insider actions
directed at your organization.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/defender-for-identity/what-is

QUESTION 11

HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant named contoso.com that contains two users named User1 and User2. The tenant uses
Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption
(OME). User1 plans to send emails that contain attachments as shown in the following table.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11

User2 plans to send emails that contain attachments as shown in the following table.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11-1

For which emails will the attachments be protected? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11-2

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11-3

Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-gb/office/introduction-to-irm-for-email-messagesbb643d33-4a3f-4ac7-9770-fd50d95f58dc?ui=en-usandrs=en-gbandad=gb#FileTypesforIRM
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/ome?view=o365-worldwide https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/office365/servicedescriptions/exchange-online-service-description/exchange-online-limits#message-limits-1

QUESTION 12

You have a new Microsoft 365 tenant.
You need to ensure that custom trainable classifiers can be created in the tenant.
To which role should you be assigned to perform the configuration?

A. Security administrator
B. Security operator
C. Global administrator
D. Compliance administrator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 13

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q13-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

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This is the latest Cisco 350-701 scor dumps

latest updated

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The latest and complete Cisco 350-701 exam in November has 359 questions and answers. We shared 13 questions for free, you can test online first. You can also directly enter the Lead4Pass 350-701 channel https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html. It is guaranteed to pass the exam 100% successfully.

Cisco 350-701 Online Practice Test

Verify the results at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

A. You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B. It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C. It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D. It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

Cisco Hybrid Email Security is a unique service offering that facilitates the deployment of your email security
infrastructure both on premises and in the cloud. You can change the number of on-premises versus cloudusers at any
time throughout the term of your contract, assuming the total number of users does not change.This allows for
deployment flexibility as your organization\\’s needs change.

 

QUESTION 2

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

A. Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B. Define security group memberships.

C. Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D. Use antispyware software.

E. Implement email filtering techniques.

 

QUESTION 3

Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

A. transparent

B. redirection

C. forward

D. proxy gateway

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Aug2013/CVDWebSecurityUsingCiscoWSADesignGuideAUG13.pdf

 

QUESTION 4

The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be
added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

A. Certificate Trust List

B. Endpoint Trust List

C. Enterprise Proxy Service

D. Secured Collaboration Proxy

 

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-701 exam questions q5

Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

What is causing this issue?

A. No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

B. The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

C. Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

D. Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/215470-site-to-sitevpn-configuration-on-ftd-ma.html

 

QUESTION 6

What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

A. access point

B. WSA

C. ASA

D. ESA

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/security-manager/index.html

 

QUESTION 7

Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

A. AMP

B. AnyConnect

C. DynDNS

D. Talos

When Umbrella receives a DNS request, it uses intelligence to determine if the request is safe, malicious or
risky–meaning the domain contains both malicious and legitimate content. Safe and malicious requests are routed as
usual or blocked, respectively. Risky requests are routed to our cloud-based proxy for deeper inspection. The Umbrella
proxy uses Cisco Talos web reputation and other third-party feeds to determine if a URL is malicious.

 

QUESTION 8

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode?
(Choose two)

A. When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA\\’s own IP address as the HTTP request
destination.

B. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

C. The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

D. The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

The Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) includes a web proxy, a threat analytics engine, antimalware engine, policy
management, and reporting in a single physical or virtual appliance. The main use of the Cisco WSA is to protect users
from accessing malicious websites and being infected by malware.You can deploy the Cisco WSA in two different
modes:?Explicit forward mode?Transparent modeIn explicit forward mode, the client is configured to explicitly use the
proxy, subsequently sending all web traffic to the proxy. Because the client knows there is a proxy and sends all traffic
to the proxy in explicit forward mode, the client does not perform a DNS lookup of the domain before requesting the
URL. The Cisco WSA is responsible for DNS resolution, as well.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/tech/content-networking/web-cache-communicationsprotocolwccp/index.html->Therefore answer D is correct as redirection can be done on Layer 3 device only.In transparent mode, the client is unaware its traffic is being sent to a proxy (Cisco WSA) and, as a result, the client uses DNS to resolve the domain name in the URL and send the web request destined for the web server (not the proxy). When you configure the Cisco WSA in transparent mode, you need to identify a network choke point with a redirection device (a Cisco ASA) to redirect traffic to the proxy.

WSA in Transparent modeReference: CCNP And CCIE Security Core SCOR 350-701 Official Cert Guide-> Therefore in
Transparent mode, WSA uses its own IP address to initiate a new connection the Web Server(in step 4 above)->
Answer E is correct.Answer C is surely not correct as WSA cannot be configured in a web browser in either
mode.Answer A seems to be correct but it is not. This answer is correct if it states “When the Cisco WSA is running
intransparent mode, it uses the WSA\\’s own IP address as the HTTP request source” (not destination).

 

QUESTION 9

Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an
option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

A. url

B. terminal

C. profile

D. selfsigned

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/public-key-infrastructure-pki/211333-IOSPKIDeployment-Guide-Initial-Design.html

 

QUESTION 10

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

A. Cisco Umbrella

B. Cisco AMP

C. Cisco Stealthwatch

D. Cisco Tetration

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/data-center-analytics/tetration-analytics/solutionoverviewc22-739268.pdf

 

QUESTION 11

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?

A. SDN controller and the cloud

B. management console and the SDN controller

C. management console and the cloud

D. SDN controller and the management solution

 

QUESTION 12

Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?

A. user input validation in a web page or web application

B. Linux and Windows operating systems

C. database

D. web page images

SQL injection usually occurs when you ask a user for input, like their username/userid, but the user gives(“injects”) you
an SQL statement that you will unknowingly run on your database. For example:Look at the following example, which
creates a SELECT statement by adding a variable (txtUserId) to a selectstring. The variable is fetched from user input
(getRequestString):txtUserId = getRequestString(“UserId”);txtSQL = “SELECT * FROM Users WHERE UserId = ” +
txtUserId;If user enter something like this: “100 OR 1=1” then the SQL statement will look like this:SELECT * FROM
Users WHERE UserId = 100 OR 1=1;The SQL above is valid and will return ALL rows from the “Users” table, since OR
1=1 is always TRUE. Ahacker might get access to all the user names and passwords in this database.

 

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

cisco 350-701 exam questions q13

A. access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

B. interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

C. number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

D. privilege level for an authorized user to this router

The syntax of this command is shown below: snmp-server group [group-name {v1 | v2c | v3 [auth | noauth | priv]}] [read
read-view] [ write write-view] [notify notify-view] [access access-list] The command above restricts which IP source
addresses are allowed to access SNMP functions on the router. You could restrict SNMP access by simply applying an
interface ACL to block incoming SNMP packets that don\\’t come from trusted servers. However, this would not be as
effective as using the global SNMP commands shown in this recipe. Because you can apply this method once for the
whole router, it is much simpler than applying ACLs to block SNMP on all interfaces separately. Also, using interface
ACLs would block not only SNMP packets intended for this router, but also may stop SNMP packets that just happened
to be passing through on their way to some other destination device.

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
DAEAABCDDECDDAB

PS. Cisco 350-701 exam PDF

Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LVh707ZFnXXMXnWHSgYRDGhgicZHeNs1/view?usp=sharing

Thank you for reading! Keep things simple! Get the complete Cisco 350-701 exam questions and answers https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html. Guarantee the successful passing of the exam.

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The latest update of Cisco 100-490 exam questions are updated from Lead4Pass

Cisco CCIT is a very popular exam in Cisco certification.
The latest update shares the Cisco CCIT 100-490 exam dumps and online practice test questions to help you pass the exam successfully.

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(Exam overview, Exam preparation, Schedule an exam, Frequently asked questions). Knowing this information will help you do a good job ahead of time. Preparation.

Of course, the easiest way is to practice exams and get a complete Cisco 100-490 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/100-490.html (60 Q&A).

Cisco 100-490 exam practice

The answer is obtained at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Which two ports on a laptop are used to gain console access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

A. DB-9
B. USB
C. DVI
D. RJ-11
E. RJ-45 Ethernet

 

QUESTION 2

An Ethernet interface is up and the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)

A. There is a speed or duplex mismatch with the remote device.
B. There is a Layer 2 mismatch in the encapsulation type.
C. The Ethernet interface has been manually disabled.
D. Keepalives are not being received by the local device.
E. The Ethernet cable might not be attached properly.

 

QUESTION 3

What are two components of a WAN connection? (Choose two.)

A. CSU/DSU
B. router
C. bridge
D. hub
E. switch

 

QUESTION 4

What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

 

QUESTION 5

Cisco NX-OS has added the ability to use which type of custom scripting to help manage user networks?

A. C++
B. Collective
C. SQL
D. Python

 

QUESTION 6

What is the primary method for recovering or upgrading a Cisco network device system image?

A. USB storage
B. FTP
C. the tftpdnld command
D. the xmodem command

 

QUESTION 7

Which two commands are valid for copying a saved configuration to RAM? (Choose two.)

A. copy startup-config running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. copy tftp running-config
D. copy running-config tftp
E. copy tftp startup-config

 

QUESTION 8

Which Cisco CPAK 100GBASE module supports Multimode Fiber cable?

A. Cisco CPAK-100G-CWDM4
B. Cisco CPAK-100G-LR4
C. Cisco CPAK-100G-ER4L
D. Cisco CPAK-100G-SR4

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/transceivermodules/data_sheet_c78-728110.html

 

QUESTION 9

Which type of Cisco console cable is used to connect a laptop to the console port on a Cisco router?

A. straight-through
B. fiber
C. crossover
D. rollover

 

QUESTION 10

Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.)

A. It provides signal conversion.
B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections.
C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
D. It provides channel testing.
E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission.

 

QUESTION 11

Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?

A. highest two bits
B. lowest two bits
C. highest four bits
D. lowest four bits

 

QUESTION 12

Which command sends an echo request packet to the target host and then waits for an echo response message?

A. echo
B. access
C. ping
D. connect

 

QUESTION 13

What are two purposes of a USB thumb drive? (Choose two.)

A. to save the system log
B. to copy configuration files to and from a PC
C. to save router hardware information
D. to copy IOS images to and from a PC
E. to increase system memory size

 

QUESTION 14

Which command displays a list of file systems that are available on Cisco devices?

A. show memory
B. show directory
C. show file system
D. show version

 

QUESTION 15

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+
B. GBIC
C. QSFP+
D. XFP

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/interfaces-modules/40-gigabit-modules/index.html#:~:text=The%20
Cisco%20QSFP%20BiDi%20transceiver,10%20Gigabit%20Ethernet%20fiber%20infrastructure

Verification place

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
ABABABDDCACDDAEDCBDCC

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Exam AZ-203: Developing Solutions for Microsoft Azure:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/az-203

Candidates for this exam are Azure Developers who design and build cloud solutions such as applications and services. They participate in all phases of development, from solution design to development and deployment, to testing and maintenance. They partner with cloud solution architects, cloud DBAs, cloud administrators, and clients to implement the solution.

Candidates should be proficient in developing apps and services by using Azure tools and technologies, including storage, security, compute, and communications.

Candidates must have at least one year of experience developing scalable solutions through all phases of software development and be skilled in at least one cloud-supported programming language.

Latest updates Microsoft az-203 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

You develop an Azure web app. You monitor performance of the web app by using Application Insights. 

You need to ensure the cost for Application Insights does not exceed a preset budget. 

What should you do? 

A. Implement ingestions sampling using the Application Insights SDK. 

B. Set a daily cap for the Application Insights instance. 

C. Implement ingestion sampling using the Azure portal. 

D. Implement adaptive sampling using the Azure portal. 

E. Implement adaptive sampling using the Application Insights SDK. 

Correct Answer: E 

Sampling is an effective way to reduce charges and stay within your monthly quota. 

You can set sampling manually, either in the portal on the Usage and estimated costs page; or in the ASP.NET SDK in

the .config file; or in the Java SDK in the ApplicationInsights.xml file, to also reduce the network traffic. 

Adaptive sampling is the default for the ASP.NET SDK. Adaptive sampling automatically adjusts to the volume of

telemetry that your app sends. It operates automatically in the SDK in your web app so that telemetry traffic on the

network is 

reduced. 

Incorrect Answers: 

B: You can use the daily volume cap to limit the data collected. 

To change the daily cap, in the Configure section of your Application Insights resource, in the Usage and estimated

costs pane, select Daily Cap. 

References: 

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/sampling 

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT 

You have an app that stores player scores for an online game. The app stores data in Azure tables using a class named

PlayerScore as the table entity. The table is populated with 100,000 records. 

You are reviewing the following section of code that is intended to retrieve 20 records where the player score exceeds

15,000. (Line numbers are included for reference only.) lead4pass az-203 exam question q2

You have the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-1

You store customer information in an Azure Cosmos database. The following data already exists in the database:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-2

You develop the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-3

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q2-5

QUESTION 3
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this question, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Margie\\’s Travel is an international travel and bookings management service. The company is expanding into
restaurant bookings. You are tasked with implementing Azure Search for the restaurants listed in their solution.
You create the index in Azure Search.
You need to import the restaurant data into the Azure Search service by using the Azure Search .NET SDK.
Solution:
1.
Create a SearchIndexClient object to connect to the search index.
2.
Create a DataContainer that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
Create a DataSource instance and set its Container property to the DataContainer.
4.
Call the Documents.Suggest method of the SearchIndexClient and pass the DataSource.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Use the following method:
1.
– Create a SearchIndexClient object to connect to the search index
2.
– Create an IndexBatch that contains the documents which must be added.
3.
– Call the Documents.Index method of the SearchIndexClient and pass the IndexBatch.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/search/search-howto-dotnet-sdk

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You need to configure Azure Cosmos DB.
Which settings should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-203 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q4-1

Box 1: Strong
When the consistency level is set to strong, the staleness window is equivalent to zero, and the clients are guaranteed
to read the latest committed value of the write operation.
Scenario: Changes to the Order data must reflect immediately across all partitions. All reads to the Order data must
fetch the most recent writes.
Note: You can choose from five well-defined models on the consistency spectrum. From strongest to weakest, the
models are: Strong, Bounded staleness, Session, Consistent prefix, Eventual
Box 2: SQL
Scenario: You identify the following requirements for data management and manipulation:
Order data is stored as nonrelational JSON and must be queried using Structured Query Language (SQL).

QUESTION 5
You develop a gateway solution for a public facing news API. The news API back end is implemented as a RESTful
service and uses an OpenAPI specification.
You need to ensure that you can access the news API by using an Azure API Management service instance.
Which Azure PowerShell command should you run?
A. Import-AzureRmApiManagementApi –Context $ApiMgmtContext –SpecificationFormat “Swagger” -SpecificationPath
$SwaggerPath –Path $Path
B. New-AzureRmApiManagementBackend -Context $ApiMgmtContext -Url $Url -Protocol http
C. New-AzureRmApiManagement –ResourceGroupName $ResourceGroup –Name $Name –Location $Location
–Organization $Org –AdminEmail $AdminEmail
D. New-AzureRmApiManagementBackendProxy –Url $ApiUrl
Correct Answer: D
New-AzureRmApiManagementBackendProxy creates a new Backend Proxy Object which can be piped when creating a
new Backend entity.
Example: Create a Backend Proxy In-Memory Object PS C:\>$secpassword = ConvertTo-SecureString
“PlainTextPassword” -AsPlainText -Force PS C:\>$proxyCreds = New-Object
System.Management.Automation.PSCredential (“foo”, $secpassword) PS C:\>$credential = New-
AzureRmApiManagementBackendProxy -Url “http://12.168.1.1:8080” -ProxyCredential $proxyCreds
PS C:\>$apimContext = New-AzureRmApiManagementContext -ResourceGroupName “Api-Default-WestUS”
-ServiceName “contoso”
PS C:\>$backend = New-AzureRmApiManagementBackend -Context $apimContext -BackendId 123 -Url
\\’https://contoso.com/awesomeapi\\’ -Protocol http -Title “first backend” -SkipCertificateChainValidation $true -Proxy
$credential Description “backend with proxy server” Creates a Backend Proxy Object and sets up Backend
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Import-AzureRmApiManagementApi cmdlet imports an Azure API Management API from a file or a URL in Web
Application Description Language (WADL), Web Services Description Language (WSDL), or Swagger format.
B: New-AzureRmApiManagementBackend creates a new backend entity in Api Management.
C: The New-AzureRmApiManagement cmdlet creates an API Management deployment in Azure API Management.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.apimanagement/new-azurermapimanagementbackendproxy?view=azurermps-6.13.0

QUESTION 6
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution Determine whether the solution meets the stated goals.
You need to meet the vendor notification requirement.
Solution: Update the Delivery API to send emails by using a cloud -based email service.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
You need to add code at line PC32 in Processing.es to implement the GetCredentials method in the Processing class.
How should you complete the code? To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations. Each
code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or
scroll to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-203 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8
You are creating a hazard notification system that has a single signaling server which triggers audio and visual alarms
to start and stop.
You implement Azure Service Bus to publish alarms. Each alarm controller uses Azure Service Bus to receive alarm
signals as part of a transaction. Alarm events must be recorded for audit purposes. Each transaction record must
include
information about the alarm type that was activated.
You need to implement a reply trail auditing solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the DeliveryCount property.
B. Assign the value of the hazard message SequenceNumber property to the DeliveryCount property.
C. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the SequenceNumber property.
D. Assign the value of the hazard message MessageId property to the CorrelationId property.
E. Assign the value of the hazard message SessionID property to the SequenceNumber property..
F. Assign the value of the hazard message SessionID property to the ReplyToSessionId property.
Correct Answer: DF
D: CorrelationId: Enables an application to specify a context for the message for the purposes of correlation; for
example, reflecting the MessageId of a message that is being replied to.
F: ReplyToSessionId: This value augments the ReplyTo information and specifies which SessionId should be set for the
reply when sent to the reply entity.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: DeliveryCount
Number of deliveries that have been attempted for this message. The count is incremented when a message lock
expires, or the message is explicitly abandoned by the receiver. This property is read-only.
C, E: SequenceNumber
The sequence number is a unique 64-bit integer assigned to a message as it is accepted and stored by the broker and
functions as its true identifier. For partitioned entities, the topmost 16 bits reflect the partition identifier. Sequence
numbers
monotonically increase and are gapless. They roll over to 0 when the 48-64 bit range is exhausted. This property is read-
only.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/service-bus-messages-payloads

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You need to configure retries in the LoadUserDetails function in the Database class without impacting user experience.
What code should you insert on line DB07?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area;
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass az-203 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q9-1

Box 1: Policy
RetryPolicy retry = Policy
.Handle()
.Retry(3);
The above example will create a retry policy which will retry up to three times if an action fails with an exception handled
by the Policy.
Box 2: WaitAndRetryAsync(3,i => TimeSpan.FromMilliseconds(100* Math.Pow(2,i-1)));
A common retry strategy is exponential backoff: this allows for retries to be made initially quickly, but then at
progressively longer intervals, to avoid hitting a
subsystem with repeated frequent calls if the subsystem may be struggling.
Example:
Policy
.Handle()
.WaitAndRetry(3, retryAttempt =>
TimeSpan.FromSeconds(Math.Pow(2, retryAttempt))
);
References:
https://github.com/App-vNext/Polly/wiki/Retry

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP
You are implementing an order processing system. A point of sale application publishes orders to topics in an Azure
Service Bus queue. The label property for the topic includes the following data:lead4pass az-203 exam question q10

The system has the following requirements for subscriptions:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q10-1

You need to implement filtering and maximize throughput while evaluating filters.Which filter types should you implement? To answer, drag the appropriate filter types to the correct subscriptions. Each
filter type may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll
to
view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q10-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q10-3

FutureOrders: SQLFilter HighPriortyOrders: CorrelationFilter CorrelationID only InternationalOrders: SQLFilter Country
NOT USA requires an SQL Filter HighQuantityOrders: SQLFilter Need to use relational operators so an SQL Filter is
needed. AllOrders: No Filter SQL Filter: SQL Filters – A SqlFilter holds a SQL-like conditional expression that is
evaluated in the broker against the arriving messages\\’ user-defined properties and system properties. All system
properties must be prefixed with sys. in the conditional expression. The SQL-language subset for filter conditions tests
for the existence of properties (EXISTS), as well as for null-values (IS NULL), logical NOT/AND/OR, relational
operators, simple numeric arithmetic, and simple text pattern matching with LIKE. Correlation Filters – A CorrelationFilter
holds a set of conditions that are matched against one or more of an arriving message\\’s user and system properties. A
common use is to match against the CorrelationId property, but the application can also choose to match against
ContentType, Label, MessageId, ReplyTo, ReplyToSessionId, SessionId, To, and any user-defined properties. A match
exists when an arriving message\\’s value for a property is equal to the value specified in the correlation filter. For string
expressions, the comparison is case-sensitive. When specifying multiple match properties, the filter combines them as a
logical AND condition, meaning for the filter to match, all conditions must match. Boolean filters – The TrueFilter and
FalseFilter either cause all arriving messages (true) or none of the arriving messages (false) to be selected for the
subscription. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/service-bus-messaging/topic-filters

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You are developing a Docker/Go using Azure App Service Web App for Containers. You plan to run the container in an
App Service on Linux. You identify a Docker container image to use.
None of your current resource groups reside in a location that supports Linux. You must minimize the number of
resource groups required.
You need to create the application and perform an initial deployment.
Which three Azure CLI commands should you use to develop the solution? To answer, move the appropriate
commands from the list of commands to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:lead4pass az-203 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q11-1

You can host native Linux applications in the cloud by using Azure Web Apps. To create a Web App for Containers, you
must run Azure CLI commands that create a group, then a service plan, and finally the web app itself.
Step 1: az group create
In the Cloud Shell, create a resource group with the az group create command.
Step 2: az appservice plan create
In the Cloud Shell, create an App Service plan in the resource group with the az appservice plan create command.
Step 3: az webapp create
In the Cloud Shell, create a web app in the myAppServicePlan App Service plan with the az webapp create command.
Don\\’t forget to replace with a unique app name, and with your Docker ID.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/mt-mt/azure/app-service/containers/quickstart-docker-go?view=sql-server-ver15

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
A company develops a series of mobile games. All games use a single leaderboard service. You have the following
requirements:
Code should be scalable and allow for growth.
Each record must consist of a playerld, gameld. score, and time played.
When users reach a new high score, the system will save the new score using the SaveScore function below.
Each game is assigned an Id based on the series title.
You have the following code. (Line numbers are included for reference only.)lead4pass az-203 exam question q12

You store customer information in an Azure Cosmos database. The following data already exists in the database:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q12-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point
Hot Area:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q12-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass az-203 exam question q12-3

QUESTION 13
You must implement Application Insights instrumentation capabilities utilizing the Azure Mobile Apps SDK to provide
meaningful analysis of user interactions with a molbile app.
You need to capture the data required to implement the Usage Analytics feature of Application Insights.
Which three data values should you capture? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Trace
B. Session Id
C. Exception
D. User Id
E. Events
Correct Answer: ADE
Application Insights is a service for monitoring the performance and usage of your apps. This module allows you to send
telemetry of various kinds (events, traces, etc.) to the Application Insights service where your data can be visualized in
the Azure Portal.
Application Insights manages the ID of a session for you.
References: https://github.com/microsoft/ApplicationInsights-Android

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QUESTION 1
Refer to Exhibit.cisco 200-301 exam questions q1

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two
static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1
B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3
C. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0
D. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2
E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 2
What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
A. to verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
B. to determine the status of network services on a remote device
C. to obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
D. to verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
E. to obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
F. to determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 3cisco 200-301 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the
packet?
A. 209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0
B. 209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0
C. 209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
D. 209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.
Select and Place:

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QUESTION 1cisco 350-701 exam questions q1

Refer to the exhibit. What will happen when this Python script is run?
A. The list of computers, policies, and connector statuses will be received from Cisco AMP.
B. The list of computers and their current vulnerabilities will be received from Cisco AMP.
C. The compromised computers and malware trajectories will be received from Cisco AMP.
D. The compromised computers and what compromised them will be received from Cisco AMP.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A malicious user gained network access by spoofing printer connections that were authorized using MAB on four
different switch ports at the same time. What two catalyst switch security features will prevent further violations?
(Choose two)
A. DHCP Snooping
B. 802.1AE MacSec
C. Port security
D. IP Device tracking
E. Dynamic ARP inspection
F. Private VLANs
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3

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Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam question and answer online practice exam

QUESTION 1
What is the function of Cisco Cloudlock for data security?
A. data loss prevention
B. controls malicious cloud apps
C. detects anomalies
D. user and entity behavior analytics
Correct Answer: A
https://umbrellA.cisco.com/products/casb

QUESTION 2
An engineer used a posture check on a Microsoft Windows endpoint and discovered that the MS17-010 patch was not
installed, which left the endpoint vulnerable to WannaCry ransomware. Which two solutions mitigate the risk of this
ransomware infection? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to install the MS17-010 patch before allowing access on
the network.
B. Set up a profiling policy in Cisco Identity Service Engine to check and endpoint patch level before allowing access on
the network.
C. Configure a posture policy in Cisco Identity Services Engine to check that an endpoint patch level is met before
allowing access on the network.
D. Configure endpoint firewall policies to stop the exploit traffic from being allowed to run and replicate throughout the
network.
E. Set up a well-defined endpoint patching strategy to ensure that endpoints have critical vulnerabilities patched in a
timely fashion.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
In which situation should an Endpoint Detection and Response solution be chosen versus an Endpoint Protection
Platform?
A. when there is a need for traditional anti-malware detection
B. when there is no need to have the solution centrally managed
C. when there te no firewall on the network
D. when there is a need to have more advanced detection capabilities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two activities can be done using Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP
B. design
C. accounting
D. DNS
E. provision
Correct Answer: BE
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-andmanagement/dnacenter/1-2-1/user_guide/b_dnac_ug_1_2_1/b_dnac_ug_1_2_chapter_00.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which two kinds of attacks are prevented by multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)
A. phishing
B. brute force
C. man-in-the-middle
D. DDOS
E. teardrop
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 6
What is the benefit of using Cisco FMC over Cisco ASDM?
A. Cisco FMC uses Java while Cisco ASDM uses HTML5.
B. Cisco FMC provides centralized management while Cisco ASDM does not.
C. Cisco FMC supports pushing configurations to devices while Cisco ASDM does not.
D. Cisco FMC supports all firewall products whereas Cisco ASDM only supports Cisco ASA devices
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/compatibility/firepower-compatibility.html

QUESTION 7
An engineer configured a new network identity in Cisco Umbrella but must verify that traffic is being routed through the
Cisco Umbrella network. Which action tests the routing?
A. Ensure that the client computers are pointing to the on-premises DNS servers.
B. Enable the Intelligent Proxy to validate that traffic is being routed correctly.
C. Add the public IP address that the client computers are behind to a Core Identity.
D. Browse to http://welcome.umbrellA.com/to validates that the new identity is working.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
In which two ways does a system administrator send web traffic transparently to the Web Security Appliance? (Choose
two.)
A. configure policy-based routing on the network infrastructure
B. reference a Proxy Auto-Config file
C. use Web Cache Communication Protocol
D. configure the proxy IP address in the web-browser settings
E. configure Active Directory Group Policies to push proxy settings
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x page authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvis-switchcommandreference/802_1x_commands.html

QUESTION 10
Which two tasks allow NetFlow on a Cisco ASA 5500 Series firewall? (Choose two.)
A. Create an ACL to allow UDP traffic on port 9996.
B. Enable NetFlow Version 9.
C. Create a class map to match interesting traffic.
D. Apply NetFlow Exporter to the outside interface in the inbound direction.
E. Define a NetFlow collector by using the flow-export command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which solution combines Cisco IOS and IOS XE components to enable administrators to recognize applications, collect
and send network metrics to Cisco Prime and other third-party management tools, and prioritize application traffic?
A. Cisco Security Intelligence
B. Cisco Application Visibility and Control
C. Cisco Model-Driven Telemetry
D. Cisco DNA Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A network administrator configures Dynamic ARP Inspection on a switch. After Dynamic ARP Inspection is applied, all
users on that switch are unable to communicate with any destination. The network administrator checks the interface
status of all interfaces, and there is no err-disabled interface. What is causing this problem?
A. The IP arp inspection limit command is applied on all interfaces and is blocking the traffic of all users.
B. DHCP snooping has not been enabled on all VLANs.
C. The no IP arp inspection trust command is applied on all user host interfaces
D. Dynamic ARP Inspection has not been enabled on all VLANs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. correlation
B. intrusion
C. access control
D. network discovery
Correct Answer: D

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Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Azure Administrator Associate (Legacy)

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Exam MS-740: Troubleshooting Microsoft Teams (beta)

Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Support Engineer Associate

Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services

Exam MD-100: Windows 10

Exam MD-101: Managing Modern Desktops

Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate

MTA: Windows Operating System Fundamentals

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AI Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam AI-102: Designing and Implementing a Microsoft Azure AI Solution

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Engineer Associate

Exam AI-100: Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution

Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Fundamentals

  • App Maker

App Maker exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

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Business Analyst exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam PL-200: Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform Functional Consultant Associate

MCSA: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations

MCSE: Business Applications

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

Exam MB6-894: Development, Extensions, and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance

Exam MB2-716: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration

Exam MB6-897: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail

Exam MB6-898: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent

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Business Owner exam certification exam questions:

Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam MB-910: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (CRM)

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

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Business User exam certification exam questions:

Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

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Exam PL-900: Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals

Exam MB-910: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (CRM)

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

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Microsoft Certified: Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

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Data Analyst exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam DA-100: Analyzing Data with Microsoft Power BI

Microsoft Certified: Data Analyst Associate

MCSA: BI Reporting

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Fundamentals

MCSA: SQL 2016 BI Development

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

Exam 70-778: Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI

Exam 70-767: Implementing a Data Warehouse using SQL

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Data Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam DP-203: Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam DP-200: Implementing an Azure Data Solution

Exam DP-201: Designing an Azure Data Solution

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam 70-467: Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server

Exam 70-464: Developing Microsoft SQL Server Databases

Exam 70-465: Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server

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Data Scientist exam certification exam questions:

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Exam DP-100: Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Scientist Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Fundamentals

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Database Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam DP-300: Administering Relational Databases on Microsoft Azure

MCSA: SQL Server 2012/2014

Microsoft Certified: Azure Database Administrator Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Fundamentals

MCSA: SQL 2016 Database Administration

MCSE: Data Management and Analytics

Exam 70-463: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

Exam 70-462: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

Exam 70-761: Querying Data with Transact-SQL

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Developer exam certification exam questions:

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Exam MB-500: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Developer

Exam 62-193: Technology Literacy for Educators

Microsoft Certified: Azure Developer Associate (Legacy)

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Exam PL-200: Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant

Exam 98-382: Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript

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DevOps Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam AZ-120: Planning and Administering Microsoft Azure for SAP Workloads

Exam AZ-400: Designing and Implementing Microsoft DevOps Solutions

Microsoft Certified: DevOps Engineer Expert

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

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Functional Consultant exam certification exam questions:

Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam MB-800: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant Associate

Exam MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management

Exam MB-310: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance

Exam MB-340: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant (beta)

Exam MB-320: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing

Exam MB-220: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Marketing

Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate (Legacy)

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Identity And Access Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-300: Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Identity and Access Administrator Associate

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Information Protection Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Information Protection Administrator Associate

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Network Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Microsoft Certified: Azure Network Engineer Associate

Exam AZ-700: Designing and Implementing Microsoft Azure Networking Solutions (beta)

  • Risk Practitioner

Risk Practitioner exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Information Protection Administrator Associate

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Security Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Exam AZ-500: Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

Exam SC-200: Microsoft Security Operations Analyst

Exam SC-300: Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Security Operations Analyst Associate

Microsoft Certified: Identity and Access Administrator Associate

Microsoft Certified: Information Protection Administrator Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure Security Engineer Associate

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Security Operations Analyst exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-200: Microsoft Security Operations Analyst

Microsoft Certified: Security Operations Analyst Associate

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Solution Architect exam certification exam questions:

Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Expert (Legacy)

Exam MB-600: Microsoft Dynamics 365 + Power Platform Solution Architect

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 + Power Platform Solution Architect Expert

Exam AZ-304: Microsoft Azure Architect Design

Exam AZ-303: Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies

Microsoft Certified: Azure for SAP Workloads Specialty

Exam AZ-120: Planning and Administering Microsoft Azure for SAP Workloads

Exam PL-600: Microsoft Power Platform Solution Architect

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform Solution Architect Expert

Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Expert

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Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Exam SC-900: Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

Exam PL-900: Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals

Exam MB-910: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (CRM)

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

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Technology Manager exam certification exam questions:

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

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QUESTION 1
This question requires that you evaluate the Bold text to determine if it is correct.
From Azure Cloud Shell , you can track your company\\’s regulatory standards and regulations, such as ISO 27001.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed/\\’ If the
statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. the Microsoft Cloud Partner Portal
C. Compliance Manager
D. the Trust Center
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Your company plans to deploy several million sensors that will upload data to Azure.
You need to identify which Azure resources must be created to support the planned solution.
Which two Azure resources should you identify? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Azure Data Lake
B. Azure Queue storage
C. Azure File Storage
D. Azure IoT Hub
E. Azure Notification Hubs
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 1
You attempt to create several managed Microsoft SQL Server instances in an Azure environment and receive a
message that you must increase your Azure subscription limits. What should you do to increase the limits?
A. Create a service health alert
B. Upgrade your support plan
C. Modify an Azure policy
D. Create a new support request
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 3
You have 1,000 virtual machines hosted on the Hyper-V hosts in a data center. You plan to migrate all the virtual
machines to an Azure pay-as-you-go subscription. You need to identify which expenditure model to use for the planned
Azure solution. Which expenditure model should you identify?
A. operational
B. elastic
C. capital
D. scalable
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/cloud-adoption/appendix/azure-scaffold

QUESTION 4
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
Your company plans to purchase Azure.
The company\\’s support policy states that the Azure environment must provide an option to access support engineers
by phone or email.
You need to recommend which support plan meets the support policy requirement.
Solution: Recommend a Professional Direct support plan.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
The Basic support plan does not have any technical support for engineers.
The Developer support plan has only technical support for engineers via email.
The Standard, Professional Direct, and Premier support plans have technical support for engineers via email and
phone.
References:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/support/plans/

QUESTION 5
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Data that is stored in the Archive access tier of an Azure Storage account can be accessed at any time by using
azcopy.exe.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. can only be read by using Azure Backup
C. must be restored before the data can be accessed
D. must be rehydrated before the data can be accessed
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines.
You need to ensure that the services running on the virtual machines are available if a single data center fails.
Solution: You deploy virtual machines to two or more resource groups.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/regions-and-availability

QUESTION 8
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
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Correct Answer:

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NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
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QUESTION 11
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.
Your company implements Azure policies to automatically add a watermark to Microsoft Word documents that contain
credit card information.
Instructions: Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct.
A. No change is needed.
B. DDoS protection
C. Azure Information Protection
D. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/infoprotect-quick-start-tutorial

QUESTION 12
You plan to deploy several Azure virtual machines.
You need to control the ports that devices on the Internet can use to access the virtual machines.
What should you use?
A. a network security group (NSG)
B. an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) role
C. an Azure Active Directory group
D. an Azure key vault
Correct Answer: A
Restricting Internet access to your VMs in Azure can be achieved by making use of Azure Network Security Groups.
References: https://scomandothergeekystuff.com/2018/04/02/blocking-internet-access-for-azure-vms/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
An Azure administrator plans to run a PowerShell script that creates Azure resources.
You need to recommend which computer configuration to use to run the script.
Solution: Run the script from a computer that runs Linux and has the Azure CLI tools installed.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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  • Vendor: Cisco
  • Exam Code: 300-410
  • Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI)
  • Certification: CCNP
  • Total Questions: 160 Q&A
  • Exam Language: English
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QUESTION 1
Cisco Catalyst 9000 is built for SD access. Which of the following are the features?
A. Fixed access, future-proofed and mobility
B. Convergence, fixed core and first in enterprise
C. Future-proofed, industry\\’s unmatched and first in enterprise
D. Fixed access, industry\\’s unmatched and first in enterprise
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following could be considered a business outcome\\’?
A. to nounsh people and the planet
B. customer experience/innovation/fulfillment
C. implements direct-to-customer experience by the end of FY 2021
D. respect employees, customers, and suppliers
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Cisco Unified Data Center offers some benefits to customers. Which is not a benefit?
A. Gain control over increasing complexity
B. Sophisticated capabilities made simple
C. Deliver more value, faster to all lines of business
D. State of the art infrastructure
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is not a feature of Cisco ONE software?
A. Software license tied to hardware
B. License portability and flexibility
C. Access to innovation, upgrades, and new capabilities
D. Simple set of solutions in networks and cloud
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which term describes the capability to correlate security information and apply intelligence in order to understand
context?
A. sophistication
B. breadth
C. integration
D. depth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
During which phases of protection would Cisco\\’s Next Generation Firewalls be deployed?
A. after an attack
B. during an attack
C. before an attack
D. during and after an attack
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following describes the NFV ENCS Virtualized branch?
A. a cloud-delivered overlay WAN architecture that facilitates digital and cloud transformation for enterprises
B. a hybrid platform that combines the benefits of a traditional router and a traditional server to offer the same
functionality with a smaller infrastructure footprint
C. a security application that mitigates vulnerabilities to offer branch and consumers protection where they need it most
D. a network device that mathematically verifies the entire network for the correctness
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
The Cisco Cloudlock protects your cloud users, data, and apps. Which of the following is not under the coverage of
Cloudlock?
A. Facebook
B. Salesforce.com
C. Box
D. Slack
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
Which phrase best describes Cisco\\’s software strategy\\’?
A. implement a build-and-fix software development model
B. identify and communicate risks
C. promote collaboration among in teams and organizational levels
D. use software and software-defined solutions to help customers realize more value from their IT investments across
their organizations
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Which is a unique capability of Meraki MX?
A. API-based management
B. Java-API console management
C. single pane of glass management tor full-stack branch infrastructure
D. came grade security for data centers
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
Which Cisco mobile end point application provides instant messaging, voice and video calls, voice messaging, desktop
sharing, conferencing, and presence?
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco Webex Teams
C. Cisco TetePresence MX
D. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
A business requirement is something that is needed by business stakeholders. Business achievements should achieve
the following except for?
A. Reflected in a business requirements document
B. Provides the overall direction of the business
C. Provide value to the business
D. Describe what the business needs
Correct Answer: A
https://community.cisco.com/legacyfs/online/ccde_9781587144615_chapter1.pdf

 

QUESTION 13
Cisco Fog Data Services are software services that deliver edge analytics, control, and security for data in the fog.
Which of the following is not a feature or benefit?
A. Network compliance
B. Analytics at the network edge
C. Application control of loT sensors
D. Security and privacy
Correct Answer: A

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