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[2017 PDF free download] Download Free Cisco 810-403 Dumps Exam Practice Questions On Lead4pass, Latest 810-403 PDF Exam Study Materials

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Question No : 1
What is the benefit of understanding stakeholder interests?
A. Understanding stakeholder interest helps sales people present solutions in the right business or technical language and context.
B. Aligning the message to the audience requires an understanding of stakeholders’ audience goals and ensure a good business proposition.
C. Matching business needs to outcomes helps sales people present solutions in the right business or technical language and context.
D. Aligning business goals and technical goals ensure sales people present solutions in the right business or technical language and context.
Answer: A
810-403
Question No : 2
Which statement is true regarding 810-403 technical requirements?
A. They establish the technical features that the customer value proposition must include.
B. They establish the technical strategy customer needs to follow to double the business size.
C. They establish what the business needs to do in order to reduce time to market.
D. They establish the business strategy that the customer must follow to accelerate their go to market.
Answer: A

Question No : 3
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Answer: A,B,C,E

Question No : 4
Which resource can a sales person incorporate into the business outcome story?
A. Include a detailed business strategic plan
B. Describe the project definition.
C. Explain technology innovations.
D. Identify the customers’ care-abouts.
Answer: D

Question No : 5
Which option is the benefit of directly mapping business outcomes to 810-403 specific business needs?
A. Increase certainly about business objectives alignment.
B. Manage and migrate risks.
C. Best performance and cost reduction.
D. Maximum relevance, clarity and impact.
Answer: C
810-403
Question No : 6
Why is it convenient to tie business outcomes and the customer value proposition?
A. Because it accelerates the time to market of new products and solutions while maintaining a reasonable cost structure.
B. Because this way you can establish fixed business goals and priorities and facilitate the deployment project management.
C. To reduce complexity for stakeholders, it is easier for them to describe the benefits and to influence others to gain support.
D. Because it keeps the value proposition unchanged, it is easier for stakeholders to claim for accountability.
Answer: C

Question No : 7
What are the phases of the Seven Elements framework?
A. Prepare, Plan, Design, Implement, Operate, Optimize.
B. Past, Present, Future.
C. Previous, Present, Posterior.
D. Before, In Between, After.
Answer: B

Question No : 8
Which option is the outcome when comparing the 810-403 current state of technology with the capabilities of emerging technologies?
A. Identify gaps for upgrading Cisco products.
B. Identify gaps that provideopportunities for new services and solutions.
C. Identify new cloud-based technologies.
D. Identify the new stakeholders.
Answer: C

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[2017 PDF free download] Latest Cisco 200-310 Exam Questions And Answers, Free Download 200-310 Exam PDF Study Materials At Lead4pass

Latest and most Accurate Cisco 200-310 exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers, Cisco CCDA is the industry leader in information technology, and http://www.lead4pass.com/200-310.html getting certified by them is a guaranteed way to succeed with IT careers. We help you do exactly that with our high quality Cisco CCDA Designing for Cisco Internetwork Solutions training materials.

QUESTION 1
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified?
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which IPv6 feature enables routing to distribute connection requests to the 200-310 nearest content server?
A. Link-local
B. Site-local
C. Anycast
D. Multicast
E. Global aggregatable
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit
200-310
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router. What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured.
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue.
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface.
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310
Which layer is the distribution layer?
A. Layer A
B. Layer B
C. Layer C
D. Layers A and B form a consolidated core and distribution layer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
200-310
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load 200-310 balancing at the same time?
A. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
B. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95
C. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0standby 2 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 2 preemptstandby 2 ip 171.16.6.200standby 2 track serial 0
D. R1Interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100standby 1 track Serial0standby 1 priority 95!!R2interface Ethernet0ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0standby 1 preemptstandby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
What two factors should be considered when deploying an enterprise campus network? (Choose two.)
A. employees
B. geography
C. applications
D. administration
E. throughput
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which network layer is the best fit for security features such as DAI and DHCP snooping?A. campus core
B. enterprise edge
C. campus distribution
D. remote-access VPN
E. enterprise data center
F. campus access
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 8
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only 200-310 flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network engineer requires that an OSPF ASBR must only flood external LSAs only within its own area. What OSPF area type should be configured?
A. Backbone Area
B. Totally Stub Area
C. Not So Stubby Area
D. Stub Area
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which statement is true concerning the data center access layer design?
A. The access layer in the data center is typically built at Layer 3, which allows for better sharing of services across multiple servers.
B. With Layer 2 access, the default gateway for the servers can be configured at the access or aggregation layer.
C. A dual-homing NIC requires a VLAN or trunk between the two access switches to support the dual IP addresses on the two server links to two separate switches.
D. The access layer is normally not required, as dual homing is standard from the servers to the aggregation layer.
Correct Answer: B

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[2017 PDF free download] 2017 New Cisco 400-101 PDF Exam Practice On Lead4pass, Cisco 400-101 Exam Material and Real Exam Questions And Answers

Latest and most accurate Cisco 400-101 exam study material and real exam practice questions and answers, Cisco 400-101 certification exam material 400-101 exam dumps, http://www.lead4pass.com/400-101.html best Cisco 400-101 study materials are written according to the latest real IT exams. All the questions and answers are revised by the skillful experts. 100% success and guarantee to pass 400-101 exam test easily at first try.

Question No : 1
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Which statement about the output is true?
A. The flow is an HTTPS connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
B. The flow is an HTTP connection to the router, which is initiated by 144.254.10.206.
C. The flow is an HTTPS connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
D. The flow is an HTTP connection that is initiated by the router and that goes to 144.254.10.206.
Answer: A

Explanation:
We can see that the connection is initiated by the 400-101 Source IP address shown as 144.254.10.206. We also see that the destination protocol (DstP) shows 01BB, which is in hex and translates to 443 in decimal. SSL/HTTPS uses port 443.

Question No : 2
What is the cause of ignores and overruns on an interface, when the overall traffic rate of the interface is low?
A. a hardware failure of the interface
B. a software bug
C. a bad cable
D. microbursts of traffic
Answer: D

Explanation:
Micro-bursting is a phenomenon where rapid bursts of data packets are sent in quick succession, leading to periods of full line-rate transmission that can overflow packet buffers of the network stack, both in network endpoints and routers and switches inside the network.
Symptoms of micro bursts will manifest in the form of ignores and/ or overruns (also shown as accumulated in “input error” counter within show interface output). This is indicative of receive ring and corresponding packet buffer being overwhelmed due to data bursts coming in over extremely short period of time (microseconds). You will never see a sustained data traffic within show interface’s “input rate” counter as they are averaging bits per second (bps) over 5 minutes by default (way too long to account for microbursts). You can understand microbursts from a scenario where a 3-lane highway merging into 400-101 a single lane at rush hour – the capacity burst cannot exceed the total available bandwidth (i.e. single lane), but it can saturate it for a period of time.

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-101
Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254.
Which action can you take to correct the problem?
A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table.
B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2.
C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address.
D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2.
Answer: A

Explanation:
Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to 400-101 it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination.

Question No : 4
Which statement describes the purpose of the Payload Type field in the RTP header?
A. It identifies the signaling protocol.
B. It identifies the codec.
C. It identifies the port numbers for RTP.
D. It identifies the port numbers for RTCP.
Answer: B

Explanation:
PT, Payload Type. 7 bits: Identifies the format of the RTP payload and determines its interpretation by the application. A profile specifies a default static mapping of payload type codes to payload formats. Additional payload type codes may be defined dynamically through non-RTP means. An RTP sender emits a single RTP payload type at any given time; this field is not intended for multiplexing separate media streams.

Question No : 5
How many hash buckets does Cisco Express Forwarding use for load balancing?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 24
D. 32
Answer: B

Explanation:
In order to understand how the 400-101 load balance takes place, you must first see how the tables relate. The Cisco Express Forwarding table points to 16 hash buckets (load share table), which point to the adjacency table for parallel paths. Each packet to be switched is broken up into the source and destination address pair and checked against the loadshare table.

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[2017 PDF free download] Latest Cisco 300-320 Exam Questions And Answers, Free Update 300-320 PDF Exam Practice At Lead4pass

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Question No : 1
Which of the following facts must be considered when designing for IP telephony within an Enterprise Campus network?
A. Because the IP phone is a three-port switch, IP telephony extends the network edge, impacting the Distribution layer.
B. Video and voice are alike in being bursty and bandwidth intensive, and thus impose requirements to be lossless, and have minimized delay and jitter.
C. IP phones have no voice and data VLAN separation, so security policies must be based on upper layer traffic characteristics.
D. Though multi-VLAN access ports are set to dot1q and carry more than two VLANs they are not trunk ports.
Answer: D
300-320
Question No : 2
Which practice is recommended when designing scalable OSPF networks?
A. Maximize the number of routers in an area.
B. Minimize the number of ABRs.
C. Minimize the number of areas supported by an ABR.
D. Maximize the number of router adjacencies.
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Which of the following is most accurate with respect to designing high 300-320 availability within the Enterprise Campus network?
A. High availability at and between the Distribution and Access layers is as simple as redundant switches and redundant Layer 3 connections
B. Non-deterministic traffic patterns require a highly available modular topology design
C. Distribution layer high availability design includes redundant switches and Layer 3 equal-cost load sharing connections to the switched Access and routed Core layers, with a Layer 3 link between the Distribution switches to support summarization of routing information from the Distribution to the Core
D. Default gateway redundancy allows for the failure of a redundant Distribution switch without affecting endpoint connectivity
Answer: D
300-320
Question No : 4
Which three statements about zoning are correct? (Choose three.)
A. Zoning increases security.
B. DNS queries are used for software zoning.
C. Software zoning is more secure than hardware zoning.
D. When using zones and VSANs together, the zone is created first.
E. Zoning requires that VSANs be established before it becomes operational.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 5
Two recently merged companies are using EIGRP and RIP. Which two strategies can facilitate a smooth migration? (Choose two.)
A. Create an OSPF instance between EIGRP and RIP routing domains.
B. Redistribute routing information between the RIP and EIGRP protocols.
C. Add EIGRP and then remove RIP on the acquired company network.
D. Use the EIGRP administrative distance to migrate one site at a time.
E. Use static routes in place of dynamic routing between companies.
Answer: B,C

Question No : 6
Which two design concerns must be addressed when 300-320 designing a multicast implementation? (Choose two.)
A. only the low-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
B. only the low-order 24 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
C. only the high-order 23 bits of the MAC address are used to map IP addresses
D. only the low-order 23 bits of the IP address are used to map MAC addresses
E. the 0x01004f MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
F. the 0x01005e MAC address prefix is used for mapping IP addresses to MAC addresses
Answer: A,F

Question No : 7
When designing remote access to the Enterprise Campus network for teleworkers and mobile workers, which of the following should the designer consider?
A. It is recommended to place the VPN termination device in line with the Enterprise Edge firewall, with ingress traffic limited to SSL only
B. Maintaining access rules, based on the source IP of the client, on an internal firewall drawn from a headend RADIUS server is the most secure deployment
C. VPN Headend routing using Reverse Route Injection (RRI) with distribution is recommended when the remote user community is small and dedicated DHCP scopes are in place
D. Clientless SSL VPNs provide more granular access control than SSL VPN clients (thin or thick), including at Layer7
Answer: D

Question No : 8
Distinct, physical redundancy within a network layer is a key characteristic that contributes to the high availability of the hierarchical network design. Which of the following is not an examples of this model?
A. SAN extension with dual fabrics such as a yellow VSAN and a blue VSAN utilized via multipath software
B. Redundant power supplies and hot-swappable fan trays in Aggregate switches
C. A single SAN fabric with redundant uplinks and switches
D. Servers using network adapter teaming software connected to dual-attached access switches
Answer: C

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[2017 PDF free download] Download Free Cisco 210-260 Exam PDF Study Materials At Lead4pass, Latest 210-260 Exam Dumps Questions With High Pass Rate

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QUESTION 1
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260
The Admin user is unable to enter configuration mode on a device with the given configuration. What change can you make to the configuration to correct the problem?
A. Remove the autocommand keyword and arguments from the username admin privilege line.
B. Change the Privilege exec level value to 15.
C. Remove the two Username Admin lines.
D. Remove the Privilege exec line.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is a benefit of a web application firewall?
A. It blocks known vulnerabilities without patching applications.
B. It simplifies troubleshooting.
C. It accelerates web traffic.
D. It supports all networking protocols.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260
What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It configures IKE Phase 1.
B. It configures a site-to-site VPN tunnel.
C. It configures a crypto policy with a key size of 14400.
D. It configures IPSec Phase 2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are purposes of the Internet Key Exchange in an IPsec VPN? (Choose two.)
A. The Internet Key Exchange protocol establishes security associations
B. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides data confidentiality
C. The Internet Key Exchange protocol provides replay detection
D. The Internet Key Exchange protocol is responsible for mutual authentication
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which statements about smart tunnels on a Cisco firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. Smart tunnels can be used by clients that do not have administrator privileges
B. Smart tunnels support all operating systems
C. Smart tunnels offer better performance than port forwarding
D. Smart tunnels require the client to have the application installed locally
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
What is the best way to confirm that AAA authentication is working properly?
A. Use the test aaa command.
B. Ping the NAS to confirm connectivity.
C. Use the Cisco-recommended configuration for AAA authentication.
D. Log into and out of the router, and then check the NAS authentication log.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?
A. It provides hardware authentication.
B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re- encryption.dis
C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.
D. It can protect against single points of failure.
Correct Answer: A

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[2017 PDF free download] Latest Cisco 200-125 Dumps Exam Practice Questions, Best 200-125 Exam PDF Free Download At Lead4pass

Question No : 1
A router has two Fast Ethernet interfaces and needs to connect to four VLANs in the local network. How can you accomplish this task, using the fewest physical interfaces and without decreasing http://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html network performance?
A. Use a hub to connect the four VLANS with a Fast Ethernet interface on the router.
B. Add a second router to handle the VLAN traffic.
C. Add two more Fast Ethernet interfaces.
D. Implement a router-on-a-stick configuration.
Answer: D

Explanation:
A router on a stick allows you to use sub-interfaces to create multiple logical networks on a single physical interface.

Question No : 2
Refer to the graphic.
200-125
Host A is communicating with the server. What will be the source MAC address of the frames received by Host A from the server?
A. the MAC address of router interface e0
B. the MAC address of router interface e1
C. the MAC address of the server network interface
D. the MAC address of host A
Answer: A

Explanation:
Whereas switches can only examine and forward 200-125 packets based on the contents of the MAC header, routers can look further into the packet to discover the network for which a packet is destined. Routers make forwarding decisions based on the packet’s networklayer header (such as an IPX header or IP header). These network-layer headers contain source and destination network addresses. Local devices address packets to the router’s MAC address in the MAC header. After receiving the packets, the router must perform the following steps:
1. Check the incoming packet for corruption, and remove the MAC header. The router checks the packet for MAC-layer errors. The router then strips off the MAC header and examines the network-layer header to determine what to do with the packet.
2. Examine the age of the packet. The router must ensure that the packet has not come too far to be forwarded. For example, IPX headers contain a hop count. By default, 15 hops is the maximum number of hops (or routers) that a packet can cross. If a packet has a hop count of 15, the router discards the packet. IP headers contain a Time to Live (TTL) value. Unlike the IPX hop count, which increments as the packet is forwarded through each router, the IP TTL value decrements as the IP packet is forwarded through each router. If an IP packet has a TTL value of 1, the router discards the packet. A router cannot decrement the TTL value to 1 and then forward the packet.
3. Determine the route to the destination. Routers maintain a routing table that lists available networks, the direction to the desired network (the outgoing interface number), and the distance to those networks. After determining which direction to forward the packet, the router must build a new header. (If you want to read the IP routing tables on a Windows 95/98 workstation, type ROUTE PRINT in the DOS box.)
4. Build the new MAC header and forward the packet. Finally, the router builds a new MAC header for the packet. The MAC header includes the router’s MAC address and the 200-125 final destination’s MAC address or the MAC address of the next router in the path.

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit:
200-125\
What will Router1 do when it receives the data frame shown? (Choose three.)
A. Router1 will strip off the source MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c36.6965.
B. Router1 will strip off the source IP address and replace it with the IP address 192.168.40.1.
C. Router1 will strip off the destination MAC address and replace it with the MAC address 0000.0c07.4320.
D. Router1 will strip off the destination IP address and replace it with the IP address of 192.168.40.1.
E. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/1.
F. Router1 will forward the data packet out interface FastEthernet0/2.
Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:
Remember, the source and destination MAC changes as each router hop along with the TTL being decremented but the source and destination IP address remain the same from source to 200-125 destination.

Question No : 4
Which three statements accurately describe Layer 2 Ethernet switches? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share VLAN information.
B. Establishing VLANs increases the number of broadcast domains.
C. Switches that are configured with VLANs make forwarding decisions based on both Layer 2 and Layer 3 address information.
D. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
E. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
F. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
Answer: B,D,E

Explanation:
Microsegmentation is a network design (functionality) where each workstation or device on a network gets its own dedicated segment (collision domain) to the http://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html switch. Each network device gets the full bandwidth of the segment and does not have to share the segment with other devices. Microsegmentation reduces and can even eliminate collisions because each segment is its own collision domain ->.
Note: Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions but it increases the number of collision domains.

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1.What   is   the  purpose  of   the  dialer-list  command  when  configuring  a  router   to   initiate  a
dial-on-demand routing ISDN call?
A.It defines call destination parameters.
B.It defines what constitutes interesting traffic.
C.It provides for optional call parameters.
D.It assigns a dialer-group to an interface.
Correct:B
2.What  are  three  disadvantages  of  a  router-on-a-stick  configuration  for  InterVLAN  routing?
(Choose three.)
A.InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B.The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C.Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D.There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E.Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F.NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct:B D E
3.What  are  two  purposes  of  the  ACL  sub-command  in  the  crypto  isakmp  client  configuration
group {group-name | default\} command? (Choose two.)
A.enables split tunneling
B.disables split tunneling
C.indicates the protected range
D.indicates the unprotected range
Correct:A C
4.Which two routers support the use of Etherswitch modules and provide power to IP phones with
the use of an external power supply? (Choose two.)
A.Cisco 2650
B.Cisco 2691
C.Cisco 3725
D.Cisco 3745
Correct:A B
5.You  have  been  asked  to  provide  a  router with  thirty  10/100 Ethernet  interfaces  and  room  for
more  for  future  growth. The  router must  also provide  security  in  the  form of  firewalls  for  each
Ethernet interface.Which router should you install?
A.Cisco 7206
B.Cisco 7304
C.Cisco 7513
D.Cisco 7603
Correct:D
6.What does the Cisco 3725 have?
A.2 network module slots, 3 VWIC slots, and 2 AIM slots
B.1 network module slot, 3 VWIC slots, and 2 AIM slots
C.3 network module slots, 2 VWIC slots, and 2 AIM slots
D.2 network module slots, 3 VWIC slots, and 3 AIM slots
Correct:A

7.Which QoS technique avoids the problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion
avoidance mechanism on the router?
A.RSVP
B.WRED
C.CAR
D.CBWFQ
Correct:B
8.Which command displays the number of successful and failed calls?
A.show dialer
B.show interface
C.show isdn q931
D.show isdn active call
Correct:A
9.Which  technology allows a service provider  to support overlapping customer VLAN  IDs over
transparent LAN services?
A.802.1q tunneling
B.ATM
C.SDH
D.IP+Optical
Correct:A
10.Which  implementation  of  SPAN  is  designed  to  support  source  ports,  source  VLANs,  and
destination ports across different switches?
A.RVSPAN
B.MSPAN
C.VSPAN
D.RSPAN
Correct:D
11.Given  the configuration:access-list 101 permit  ip any anyaccess-list 101 deny  tcp any any eq
ftpdialer-list  2  protocol  ip  list  101Which  two  statements  about  the  configuration  are  true with
respect to FTP traffic and DDR? (Choose two.)
A.FTP traffic will be forwarded.
B.FTP traffic will not be forwarded.
C.FTP will cause the line to come up.
D.Since FTP uses two sockets, both must be defined to prevent packet forwarding.
Correct:A C
12.Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A.the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B.the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C.the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D.the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E.protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F.protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
Correct:B C E
13.What feature of the EZ VPN Remote makes it desirable to have Proxy DNS server support for
the PCs attached to the VPN?
A.Client mode with connect auto
B.Client mode with connect manual
C.Network Extension mode with connect auto
D.Network Extension mode with connect manual
Correct:B

 

14.Drag Drop question

Correct:
Green choice4—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice5

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QUESTION 1

Which statement about Cisco UCS version compatibility is true?
A. All bundles (A, B, and C) must be the same version.
B. The B and C bundles must be the same revision.
C. The A bundle can be one revision higher than the B/C bundles.
D. The B/C bundles can be one revision higher than the A bundles.
< Correct Answer: C >

QUESTION 2

You have blade servers that run VMware ESXi. Which two tasks do you perform to ensure that all of the components in the Cisco UCS environment use jumbo
frames? (Choose two.)
A. Use a QoS policy for the jumbo frames.
B. Configure the MTU on the vSwitch.
C. Configure the fabric interconnect to support 9500-byte frames.
D. Configure the MTU on the vNIC.
E. Configure a QoS policy on the vSwitch.
< Correct Answer: AB >
QUESTION 3

You are troubleshooting an FCoE boot issue on a Cisco UCS C220 M3 server with a VIC 1225 CNA. Which two pieces of information can you directly infer from
the output of the show zone active command below? (Choose two.)
zone name Server_1-to-Storage vsan 11
pwwn 50:06:01:60:3b:a0:08:9f [Storage]
* fcid 0x3b000b [pwwn 20:00:00:25:b5:04:0a:02] [C22_Server]
A. The storage controller is not logged into the fabric.
B. The server is not logged into the fabric.
C. Only the storage controller is logged into the fabric.
D. Only the server is logged into the fabric.
E. The initiator and target cannot communicate because they are on the wrong VSAN.
F. The WWPN of the storage controller is mistyped.
G. The initiator and target cannot communicate because the zone name does not match the server name (C22_Server).
< Correct Answer: AD >
QUESTION 4

A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have configured the following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity.
What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
< Correct Answer: C >
QUESTION 5

The Core File Exporter automatically exports cores to a remote server as they are generated. Which protocol does it use for this action?
A. FTP
B. SCP
C. SFTP
D. TFTP
< Correct Answer: D >
QUESTION 6

How does the FSM react after an error or timeout at a stage?
A. stops
B. retries until successful
C. continues
D. retries that stage at scheduled intervals
E. raises faults and continues
< Correct Answer: D >
QUESTION 7

You attempt to boot a supported Linux operating system live image from the eUSB in a Cisco UCS blade- server environment, but the boot fails. Which option is
the most likely cause of the failure?
A. In the Service Profile, a device other than the eUSB is set first in the boot order for the server.
B. The eUSB license is unavailable or the grace period of the license is expired.
C. The blade servers are unable to boot from the eUSB. The eUSB is used only for virtual machines.
D. Access to the eUSB is disabled for that blade server by Power Manager.
< Correct Answer: A >
QUESTION 8

You are installing Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server, and the installer does not see local storage on the LSI MegaRAID SAS
9260-4i controller that is installed. Which statement explains the issue?
A. The driver is not included in the installer DVD. Press F6 to load the LSI RAID driver from CD or virtual media.
B. The virtual disk is not created and online.
C. The LSI 9260-4i is only supported by Red Hat Enterprise Linux and VMware vSphere 4.0 and later.
D. The installer DVD for Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 did not include the LSI driver until SP2.
< Correct Answer: B >
QUESTION 9

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true based on the output of “show service- profile circuit server 1/3”. (Choose three.)

642-035

A. vnic eth0 is pinned to module 0 interface 1.
B. vnic eth1 is pinned to module 1 interface 6.
C. vnic eth0 is pinned to port channel 1.
D. vnic eth1 is pinned to port channel 6.
E. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth0.
F. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth1.
< Correct Answer: BCF >

 

QUESTION 10

642-035

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642-035

642-035

642-035

Refer to Exhibit 4. Which selection is true regarding the configured Write Cache policy on the RAID adapter?
A. Data written is stored in the cache and also written through to the physical drives
B. Data written is stored in the cache and will be written to the physical drives when bandwidth is available
C. Write Through mode poses the risk of data corruption if a BBU is not installed
D. Write Through mode falls back to Write Back mode if the BBU fails
< Correct Answer: C >

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QUESTION 1
Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 2
Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding
based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 8
Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
A. PDUs
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 9
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 10
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer?
(Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the
information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet
frame?
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 14
What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 15
What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 18
Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF

QUESTION 19
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 20

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