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The Best Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-887 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 2 Mbps of bandwidth for outgoing FTP traffic on interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 on Cisco IOS XR. Which method accomplishes this configuration?
A. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
B. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
C. configure terminal
access-list 100 permit ip any any eq 21
policy-map POLICY_1
match ip access-list 100
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
D. configure terminal
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? 642-887 dumps (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress, classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Which configuration fulfills the requirement of configuring LDP with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding on a router with 5 minutes time to hold the forwarding table information and 1 minute retry timer value for an LDP connection?
A. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
B. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
C. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
D. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
Cisco MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is enabled?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. 642-887 dumps Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 10 Mbps priority queue for traffic matched by class-map VOICE_CLASS on Cisco IOS XR. Which policy must be applied for outgoing traffic on interface FastEthernet 0/0/1?
A. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
B. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
priority percent 10
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
C. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 1000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
D. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10 Mbps
exceed-action shape
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

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Best Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q25)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 3
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources? 400-201 dumps
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior?
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS?
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. 400-201 dumps Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The NOC engineer noticed that the R2 router system clock is not updated and synchronized to the NTP server that is configured on the R10 router. What is the issue?
A. The access list NTP_Clients is missing.
B. The access group is misconfigured.
C. The maximum number of peers and client associations is exceeded.
D. The authentication key is mismatched.
E. The PE2 router should be configured as an NTP peer instead of as a client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that insures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. TE FRR
B. IP FRR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. NSR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop the MPLS inter ASVPN options on left to right.
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-201 dumps
QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
DND QOS Characteristics on the left onto its correct QOS Mechanism on the right :
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-201 dumps

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100-105 dumps

High Quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two) 100-105 dumps
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With the configuration above, when we type andquot;do show vlanandquot; we would not see VLAN 10 in the VLAN database because it has not been created yet.

QUESTION 6
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr.

QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle:
Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network security plan i.

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct.

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.
100-105 dumps
Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. 100-105 dumps How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? 100-105 dumps (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation/Reference:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers.
In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands.

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2.

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70-246 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your company has a private cloud that contains a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains a Service Manager infrastructure and an Orchestrator infrastructure. You plan to configure the private cloud to meet the following requirements:
Integrate runbooks to Service Manager requests.
Automate administration tasks by using runbooks.
Provide end users with the ability to perform administrative tasks.
You need to configure the private cloud to meet the requirements.
What should you do from Service Manager?
A. Register the Orchestrator Integration Packs.
B. Create an Exception Management Workflow.
C. Register a data source.
D. Select the sync folder for the Orchestrator connector.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
The System Center Integration Pack for System Center 2012 Configuration Manager is an add-in for System Center 2012 – Orchestrator. It enables you to automate actions within Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration Manager, such as software and update deployment. In addition, it allows you create and modify collections. With this integration pack, you can also create workflows that interact with and transfer information to the integration packs for System Center Service Manager, System Center Data Protection Manager, System Center Operations Manager, and System Center Virtual Machine Manager. Configuring the System Center 2012 – Service Manager Connections A connection establishes a reusable link between Orchestrator and a Service Manager Server. You can create as many connections as you need to specify links to multiple servers. You can also create multiple connections to the same server to allow for differences in security permissions for different user accounts.

QUESTION 2
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Orchestrator, System Center 2012 Operations Manager, and System Center 2012 Service Manager infrastructure.
You discover that a service on a server repeatedly stops. You need to configure a solution to remediate the recurring issue automatically. What should you do?
A. From Service Manager, create an incident template.
B. From Service Manager, configure an incident event workflow.
C. From Operations Manager, configure the CI connector.
D. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
“You need to configure a solution to remediate the recurring issue automatically” Incident workflows are for Service Manager where fx the service desk can apply an incident template.

QUESTION 3
Your company has a private cloud that contains a System Center 2012 Service Manager instance.
Service Manager has the Self-Service Portal installed. You create a service offering that contains a single request offering. The service offering provides logged-on users with the ability to add their user account automatically to a group named ServiceGroup1. 70-246 dumps The company’s security policy requires that an administrator named Admin1 must approve all requests for group membership change You need to configure the infrastructure to meet the requirements of the company’s security policy.
What should you modify?
A. the service offering
B. the service request template
C. the request offering
D. the Service Offering Category list
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
For approval you need to add a Review Activity to the Service Request Template at the Activity tab.
Marcel Zehner wrote a good blog post about this:
News in SCSM12 (Beta) #2 – Service Requests
Hope this helps.

QUESTION 4
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. The network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.com.
Operations Manager monitors a server named Operations1. Operations1 has a computer account in an organizational unit (OU) name ServerOU1. You create a group named GP1 as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-246 dumps
You create a rule named OMRule1 that generates an alert when an error is added to the Application log. You target OMRule1 to GP1. You discover that alerts fail to be generated when errors are added to the Application log on Operations1. You need to ensure that an alert is generated when an error is added to the Application log on Operations1. What should you modify?
A. the target of OMRulel1
B. the dynamic membership of GP1
C. the category of OMRule1
D. the explicit membership of GP1
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
How does a rule get to an agent?
For any particular rule/monitor, OpsMgr will enumerate all instances of the target class and apply the rule to each. If there are no instances of the target class on a particular agent, then the rule will do nothing. It’s that simple. If I can’t target groups, why are they listed when I select a target for a rule? Groups are classes just like any other. They’re singleton classes where the class and the instance are one and the same, but they are classes nonetheless which is why they show up in the list with all other classes. There are really very few circumstances where you will target a rule at a group though. What if I do target a group? You can apply a rule/monitor directly to a group, but it will execute against the group object itself. OpsMgr will not enumerate members of the group and apply the rule to each. Any rules targeted at groups will actually operate on the Root Management Server since groups have no host and unhosted objects are managed by the RMS. How do I target some group of objects then? To the specific question of how to get a particular rule/monitor to a subset of components, you have two basic options. Let’s say for example, you have a particular subset of web sites that you need a particular rule to apply. You could target that rule at the IIS 2003 Web Site class for example, but that would apply the rule to all instances of that class. It would probably apply to sites that you didn’t want. 70-246 dumps Option 1 would be to create a new class and target the rule at the class. In the case of an IIS site, this would mean that you would need to go to the Authoring Console or raw XML and create a new class and discovery. That’s a more advanced solution that most customers will do and probably overkill anyway. Option 2 is the create a rule target at the whole class and disable it. Create a group with the sites you want and create an override for that group to enable your rule. This might sound like a workaround, but it’s a completely valid solution. How do I know if I’m selecting the right target? The easiest method to validate you are using a target that actually has instances is to use the Discovered Inventory view in the Operations Console prior to creating your rule/monitor. In the Actions pane is an option called “Change target type…” that will bring up the same Select a Target Type dialog box that you see when you select the target for a rule/monitor. This view will list all instances of the target class you select. You can validate which agents have an instance of that class and how many instances each has. If there are no instances listed, then the rule isn’t going to do anything. If there are instances, then you not only be confident that the rule/monitor will execute on the agent, but you can also view the properties of the instance that will be accessible to any rules/monitors targeted at it.
70-246 dumps
QUESTION 5
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 Operations Manager infrastructure. The network contains two network segments that are separated by a firewall. You have a management server named Server1. You create a discovery rule and configure the rule to discover SNMP devices. You discover that only the devices on the network segment that contains Server1 are discovered. You need to ensure that the devices supporting SNMP on both network segments are discovered. Which firewall port or ports should you allow on the firewall?
A. UDP 161
B. TCP 161 and UDP 22
C. UDP 5723 and UDP 5724
D. TCP 162
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
SNMP uses the default UDP port 161 for general SNMP messages and UDP port 162 for SNMP trap messages.

QUESTION 6
The network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2008 R2.
The private cloud contains two servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-246 dumps
The network segments are separated by a firewall. All of the TCP ports from 1 to 1024 are allowed on the firewall. You need to ensure that Server1 can send security events to Server2. What should you do?
A. From the firewall, allow TCP 51909 from Network1 to Network2.
B. From the firewall, allow TCP 5723 from Network1 to Network2.
C. Deploy an Operations Manager gateway server.
D. Deploy an SMTP smart host.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
ACS Forwarders Separated from the ACS Collector by a Firewall Because of the limited communication between an ACS forwarder and an ACS collector you only need to open the inbound TCP port 51909 on a firewall to enable an ACS forwarder, separated from your network by a firewall, to reach the ACS collector.

QUESTION 7
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains an Operations Manager infrastructure and a Service Manager infrastructure. 70-246 dumps You need to configure Service Manager to create incidents automatically based on Operations Manager alerts. Which object should you create from the Service Manager Console?
A. a subscription
B. an incident event workflow
C. a connector
D. a queue
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
System Center Operations Manager (SCOM) –> System Center Service Manager(SCSM) CI Connector

QUESTION 8
DRAG DROP
Your company has a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. The network contains an Orchestrator infrastructure and a Service Manager infrastructure. You need to automate user account provisioning for the Self-Service Portal. The solution must ensure that new user accounts are approved by a member of the human resources department. You configure the Orchestrator connector. Which five actions should you perform next? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area.)
70-246 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-246 dumps
Explanation:
70-246 dumps
1. Create Runbook Automated Activity Template
2. Extend service request class
3. Create Service Request template using the new Class and include the Runbook Automated Activity Template.
4. Create the Service Request Offering.

QUESTION 9
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. A server named VMM1 hosts the System Center 2012 Service Manager management server. A server named Server2 hosts the System Center 2012 Orchestrator management server. You plan to use a runbook named Book1 to update the status of Service Manager incidents. You need to ensure that you can create Book1, and then reference the runbook in Service Manager. What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. From the Service Manager Console, add an incident event workflow.
B. From the Service Manager Shell, run the Set-SCDWJobSchedule cmdlet.
C. From the Orchestrator Deployment Manager, register the Integration Pack for System Center Service Manager.
D. From the Service Manager Console, create an Orchestrator connector.
E. From the System Center 2012 Orchestrator Runbook designer, create a connection.
F. From the Service Manager Shell, run the Enable-SCDWJobSchedule cmdlet.
Correct Answer: C,D,E

Explanation:
Install the integration pack for SCSM on Orchestrator and configure the connection settings (SCSM server name, User, Password) Create a new runbook First activity -> “Monitor Object” of SCSM integration pack -> Incident Class -> On Update -> Filter “Support Group” not equal “Tier 1” Add 6 “Send Email” activities -> 6 different recipients -> add the text in each mail body Link all 6 “Send Email” activities with the first “Monitor Object” activity On each link delete the default rule “On success” Add a new criteria -> Choose the “Support Group” from the data bus ->criteria of the first link “Support Group” equals “Tier 2” Do the same with the other Links and Support Groups.

QUESTION 10
Your company has a datacenter in Los Angeles. The datacenter contains a private cloud that is managed by using a System Center 2012 infrastructure. 70-246 dumps The infrastructure has the System Center 2012 Service Manager Self-Service Portal installed. You create a new service offering. You need to ensure that only three users named Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 can access the service offering.
What should you do?
A. Add the service offering and the request offering to a Service Manager group, and then create a Run As Account.
B. Add the Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 configuration items to a Service Manager group, and then create a Run As Account.
C. Add the service offering and the request offering to a Service Manager group, and then create a User Role.
D. Add the Admin1, Admin2, and Admin3 configuration items to a Service Manager group, and then create a User Role.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
With Role based security scoping in SCSM there is the possibility to configure a controlled environment for different service roles. A SCSM role profile is a configuration set to define access to objects, views in the console, operations they can perform and members of the role (AD User/Group).

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070-413 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to recommend changes to the DNS environment that support the implementation of the sales.contoso.com domain. The solution must ensure that the users in all of the domains can resolve both Internet names and the names of the servers in all of the internal domains.
What should you recommend?
A. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a reverse lookup zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to contoso.com.
B. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, add a conditional forwarder to the sales.contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the DNS servers of the company’s ISP.
C. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, create a zone delegation in the contoso.com zone. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, add a forwarder to the contoso.com DNS servers.
D. On the DNS servers in contoso.com, configure a conditional forwarder to sales.contoso.com. On the DNS servers in sales.contoso.com, configure a reverse zone.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Scenario: The client computers in sales.contoso.com will use the sales.contoso.com domain controllers as their DNS servers.

QUESTION 2
You are planning the decommissioning of research.contoso.com.
You need to ensure that an administrator named Admin5 in the research department can manage the user accounts that are migrated to contoso.com. The solution must minimize the number of permissions assigned to Admin5.
What should you do before you migrate the user accounts?
A. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADPrincipalGroupMembershipcmdlet.
B. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then add Admin5 to the Account Operators group.
C. Create a new organizational unit (OU), and then run the Delegation of Control Wizard.
D. Run the New-Object cmdlet, and then run the Add-ADCentralAccessPolicyMembercmdlet.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
* Scenario: Decommission the research.contoso.com domain. All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com.

QUESTION 3
You are planning the implementation of two new servers that will be configured as RADIUS servers.
You need to recommend which configuration must be performed on the VPN servers. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do on each VPN server?
A. Add a RADIUS client.
B. Install the Health Registration Authority role service.
C. Enable DirectAccess.
D. Modify the authentication provider.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
* Implement RADIUS authentication for VPN connections.
* The new sales.contoso.com domain will contain a web application that will access data from a Microsoft SQL Server located in the contoso.com domain. The web application must use integrated Windows authentication. Users’ credentials must be passed from the web applications to the SQL Server.

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend which changes must be implemented to the network before you can deploy the new web application.
What should you include in the recommendation? 070-413 dumps
A. Change the forest functional level to Windows Server 2008 R2.
B. Upgrade the DNS servers to Windows Server 2012.
C. Change the functional level of both the domains to Windows Server 2008 R2.
D. Upgrade the domain controllers to Windows Server 2012.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Scenario:
The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.
The company is migrating to Windows Server 2012.

QUESTION 5
You are evaluating the implementation of data deduplication on the planned Windows Server 2012 file servers.
The planned servers will have the identical disk configurations as the current servers.
You need to identify which volumes can be enabled for data deduplication.
Which volumes should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. The CSV
E. DATA
Correct Answer: CE

Explanation:
* Scenario:
A mounted virtual hard disk (VHD) named DATA that is formatted NTFS A simple volume named E that is formatted NTFS
* It slices, it dices, and it cleans your floors!
Well, the Data Deduplication feature doesn’t do everything in this version. It is only available in certain Windows Server 2012 editions and has some limitations. Deduplication was built for NTFS data volumes and it does not support boot or system drives and cannot be used with Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV). We don’t support deduplicating live VMs or running SQL databases. See how to determine which volumes are candidates for deduplication on Technet.

QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a fault-tolerant solution for the VPN. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Network adapter teaming
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. Failover Clustering
D. DirectAccess
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: Core networking services in each office must be redundant if a server fails.
* The Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature distributes traffic across several servers by using the TCP/IP networking protocol. By combining two or more computers that are running applications into a single virtual cluster, NLB provides reliability and performance for web servers and other mission-critical servers.

QUESTION 7
You are planning the migration of research.contoso.com.
You need to identify which tools must be used to perform the migration.
Which tools should you identify?
A. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
B. Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) and Microsoft Federation Gateway
C. Active Directory Migration Tool version 3.2 (ADMT v3.2) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
D. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services (AD LDS) and Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
* Scenario:
All of the users and the Group Policy objects (GPOs) in research.contoso.com will be migrated to contoso.com. two domain controllers for the research.contoso.com domain. The domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution for DHCP logging. The solution must meet the technical requirement.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Event subscriptions
B. IP Address Management (IPAM)
C. DHCP audit logging
D. DHCP filtering
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario: A central log of the IP address leases and the users associated to those leases must be created.
* Feature description
IPAM in Windows Server 2012 is a new built-in framework for discovering, monitoring, auditing, and managing the IP address space used on a corporate network. IPAM provides for administration and monitoring of servers running Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name Service (DNS). IPAM includes components for:
– Automatic IP address infrastructure discover)’: IPAM discovers domain controllers, DHCP servers, and DNS servers in the domains you choose. You can enable or disable management of these servers by IPAM.
– Custom IP address space display, reporting, and management: The display of IP addresses is highly customizable and detailed tracking and utilization data is available. 070-413 dumps IPv4 and IPv6 address space is organized into IP address blocks, IP address ranges, and individual IP addresses. IP addresses are assigned built-in or user-defined fields that can be used to further organize IP address space into hierarchical, logical groups.
– Audit of server configuration changes and tracking of IP address usage: Operational events are displayed for the IPAM server and managed DHCP servers. IPAM also enables IP address tracking using DHCP lease events and user logon events collected from Network Policy Server (NPS), domain controllers, and DHCP servers. Tracking is available by IP address, client ID, host name, or user name.
– Monitoring and management of DHCP and DNS services: IPAM enables automated service availability monitoring for Microsoft DHCP and DNS servers across the forest. DNS zone health is displayed, and detailed DHCP server and scope management is available using the IPAM console.

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a management solution for the GPOs. The solution must meet the technical requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA)
B. Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP)
C. Microsoft System Center 2012 Operations Manager
D. Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM)
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
* Scenario:
/ All changes to Group Policies must be logged.
/ Administrators in the Paris office need to deploy a series of desktop restrictions to the entire company by using Group Policy.
* Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
Windows Vista Enterprise helps global organizations and enterprises with complex IT infrastructures lower IT costs, reduce risk, and stay connected. The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack for Software Assurance further extends this value by reducing application deployment costs, enabling delivery of applications as services, and allowing for better management and control of enterprise desktop environments. Together these technologies deliver a highly cost-effective and flexible Windows desktop management solution.
What is the Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack?
The Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack (MDOP) for Software Assurance is an add-on subscription license available to Software Assurance customers. It uses innovative technologies to help reduce the total cost of ownership (TCO) of the Windows desktop by accelerating operating system and application management and enhancing IT responsiveness and end-user uptime. It will enable you to better control the desktop, accelerate and simplify desktop deployments and management, and create a dynamic infrastructure by turning software into centrally managed services.
MDOP facilitates accelerated deployment and manageability of Windows through these innovative technologies– available only to Windows Software Assurance customers.

QUESTION 10
You implement and authorize the new DHCP servers. You import the server configurations and the scope configurations from PA1 and AM1.
You need to ensure that clients can obtain DHCP address assignments after you shut down PA1 and AM1. The solution must meet the technical requirements.
What should you do?
A. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Remove-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
B. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet and the Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet. Activate the scopes.
C. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet. Run the Windows Server Migration Tools.
D. Run the Get-DhcpServerv4FreeIPAddress cmdlet and the Invoke- DhcpServerv4FailoverReplication cmdlet Activate the scopes.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Get-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet gets one or more lease records from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service.
The Add-DhcpServerv4Lease cmdlet adds a new IPv4 address lease on the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server service. This cmdlet is only supported for DHCP server service running on Windows Server® 2012.

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1Y0-401 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which component should a Citrix Architect recommend to centrally audit any failed logon attempts to NetScaler Gateway? A Citrix Architect is asked to design a new external access architecture for CGE.
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. Citrix Command Center
D. Citrix NetScaler AppFlow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
Why is using a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts, using a shared virtual disk storage repository for XenMotion, high availability, and the replication and backup of meta information the best design for the resource pools?
A. It addresses all customer requirements by ensuring appropriate design of resource pools, high availability for critical workloads, and a disaster recovery process that leverages a backup solution.
B. It ensures simple setup with redundancy.
C. It bases resource pools on roles, and facilitates the movement of workloads from one resource pool to another in the event of maintenance or disaster recovery.
D. It ensures the separation of infrastructure and virtual desktop workloads, which optimizes performance and high availability.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. 1Y0-401 dumps Why does using Windows Deployment Services and centralizing the volume-activation process help manage the image versioning process?
A. It reduces licensing administration.
B. It helps manage version control.
C. It automates the license download process.
D. It enables the use of Multiple Activation Keys (MAKs).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Scenario:
CGE\’s security officer states that, for compliance reasons, all network traffic between Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, and NetScalers must be encrypted.
Why does using SSL meet CGE\’s compliance requirements?
A. It eliminates the need to distribute an internal root certificate.
B. It encrypts end-to-end traffic from remote end users.
C. It enables the SSL Relay service.
D. It encrypts network traffic between XenDesktop, StoreFront, and NetScaler.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario:
CGE is experiencing numerous issues with its existing profile management solution. The Citrix Architect managing the project is tasked with designing a solution that alleviates existing issues and, if possible, minimizes the loss of existing customizations. Configuration changes need to be implemented quickly and with minimal complexity.
Why does enabling \’Active write back\’ when configuring group profiles benefit CGE\’s Sales end-user group?
A. It improves application performance.
B. It simplifies home drive cleanup.
C. It minimizes the required storage needed for folder redirection.
D. It improves data accuracy in volatile environments.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How should the architect configure high availability (HA) on a XenServer host to support an iSCSI SAN?
A. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and create a NIC bond.
B. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards from the XenServer to the iSCSI storage network and enable Asymmetric Logical Unit Assignment (ALUA).
C. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a different Layer 3 network, run the HBA configuration utility, and verify that both can access the iSCSI storage array.
D. Connect a minimum of two network interface cards to the iSCSI storage network, each on a separate Layer 3 network, and enable XenServer Multipathing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Scenario:
CGE acquires a small energy company that is running MGMT, a proprietary 16-bit application. A Citrix Architect is tasked with deploying this application to the Executives/Management end-user group. The CIO mandates that a FlexCast model must be chosen that resembles this end-user group\’s existing delivery strategy.
It is important that a single-image deployment is utilized and that management effort is kept to a minimum for the update process. 1Y0-401 dumps The availability of a fast rollback plan must also be available after upgrades, since it can often result in system instability.
Why is deploying MGMT as a VM hosted app on Windows 7 x86 with Machine Creation Services the best solution?
A. It supports 16-bit applications.
B. It meets the high-performance application demands of the Executives/Management end-user group.
C. It allows the installation of custom applications.
D. It offers faster change and rollback procedures.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Scenario:
CGE needs to define its management process for desktop image releases. Some groups need a process for version control that includes thorough testing prior to production. How should the architect use Windows Deployment Services to facilitate image management?
A. By deploying a standard base image to virtual desktops
B. By deploying a base image from an XVA file
C. By centralizing the volume-activation process
D. By installing Windows applications into an image
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its server workloads and provide a virtual solution to all of its end users. CGE is looking for an image management process that is scalable, but would like to limit infrastructure requirements.
Why is Provisioning Services the best image management method for this environment?
A. It provides centralized image management.
B. It reduces the storage footprint.
C. It reduces network traffic.
D. It reduces infrastructure server requirements.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Why would the architect choose active-passive bonding when configuring network interfaces for storage networks?
A. It provides load balancing of VM traffic across multiple physical NIC interfaces at a per guest basis, and offers improved distribution of traffic across physical interfaces in the bond.
B. It sends all guest VM traffic in the bond to an active interface, which provides the best distribution of network load.
C. It uses a hashing algorithm, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
D. It uses a round robin load-balancing policy, which provides better distribution of traffic across the interfaces in the bond.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
What are the benefits of using Hosted Shared servers and manually installing the operating system?
A. It provides the highest end-user density at the lowest cost.
B. It provides the greatest level of end-user personalization and control.
C. It offers the lowest storage performance requirement and the highest end-user density.
D. It offers the lowest cost and the greatest application compatibility.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Scenario:
CGE decided to virtualize its infrastructure workloads and provide a virtual solution to all end users. The infrastructure workloads include Delivery Controllers, StoreFront servers, 1Y0-401 dumps License Servers, and Microsoft SQL Servers for databases.
How should the resource pools be designed to host the infrastructure workloads and virtual desktops to ensure high availability?
A. Resource pools comprising a maximum of eight XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be backed up daily, and third-party backup solutions should be implemented for the desktops.
B. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 24 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be on a storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be backed up daily.
C. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 16 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of all workloads should be on a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. Virtual machine meta information and data should be replicated to the failover site by the new storage solution.
D. Resource pools comprising a maximum of 32 XenServer hosts should be created for the virtual solution. The virtual disks of the infrastructure workloads should be on a shared storage repository to provide XenMotion and high availability capabilities. Virtual machine meta information and data should be replicated and backed up.
Correct Answer: C

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Citrix has released a version of Receiver for Windows 10 S that will make Microsoft even more fun with the school’s lightweight Windows. Receiver comes to the Store, to pipe apps and desktops into Windows-lite for Schools.

Microsoft launched Windows 10 S in May 2017 and recommended it to schools because it can only install apps from the Windows Store. That plan was advanced as likely to keep kids from messing things up with dodgy-ware sourced from who knows where.

At the press conference, Microsoft told those who want other applications to “choose Windows 10 Pro.” They now also have the option of downloading a new version of Citrix Receiver that is compatible with Windows 10 S.
Citrix
Receiver is Citrix’s XenApp application publishing tool and the client for the XenDesktop desktop virtualization suite. Citrix said this is just another version of Receiver for another platform, so there should be no problem with applications other than Microsoft Store to Windows 10 S.

The release of Microsoft’s press release led Microsoft to change the version of Windows 10, as Steve Teixeira, general manager of Microsoft’s Developer Ecosystem, asked Citrix to quote him: “Microsoft is excited to have Citrix Receiver for Windows 10 devices available in the Microsoft Store, making it even easier to safely and securely connect to your new and existing applications from any Windows 10 S device.”
Citrix
Teixeira added that “This announcement is another example of Microsoft’s strong partnership with Citrix to enhance and extend the capabilities of Windows 10 devices for the modern digital workforce.”

Citrix, in partnership with Nutanix, announced the launch of Citrix Cloud’s Nutanix InstantOn as the industry’s first Citrix Ready workspace device. This makes it faster and easier to provide secure digital workspaces in today’s hybrid cloud environment.

Citrix Ready workspace application design ideas are: You – our customers. You tell us that Citrix Cloud XenApp and XenDesktop Service radically simplify and enhance your ability to deliver high-performance virtual applications and desktops.
Citrix
Your journey to cloud computing begins with a hybrid cloud deployment and you place a premium on the design of XenApp and XenDesktop services to optimize the delivery of securely hosted applications and desktops in your local data center. And, you are eager to take advantage of the performance, simplicity and scalability of applications and desktops on the hyper-converged infrastructure solution in your local data center. Sounds familiar

When Microsoft launched Windows 10 S, it recognized the low-end PC is the ideal operating environment. Citrix Receiver requires at least 500MB of free disk space and 1GB of RAM, so maybe some of the lowest-end devices Microsoft mentioned are comparable to Windows 10S. But relatively inexpensive hardware will make 10S products of interest to buyers who need to go beyond Microsoft stores.

Reference: https://www.theregister.co.uk/2017/12/01/citrix_receiver_for_windows_10_s/

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft System Center 2012 Configuration
Exam Name: Administering and Deploying System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Exam Code: 70-243
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
70-243 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
In Default Client Agent Settings, you enable Hardware Inventory and Software Inventory.
You discover that a group of client computers fails to report software inventory data.
The client computers report hardware inventory data.
You confirm that Configuration Manager can deploy Applications to the group of client computers.
You need to identify what is causing the reporting issue.
Which log files should you review? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Filesystemfile.log
B. Dataldr.log
C. Mp_sinv.log
D. Inventoryagent.log
E. Hman.log
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 2
Your company has a production network and a test network.
Both networks have System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You create the following objects on the test network:
A configuration item named SQLServerCI
A configuration baseline named SQLServerBaseline that contains the configuration item
A collection named SQLServers that contains all of the servers on the test network that run Microsoft SQL Server.
You export the configuration baseline to SQLServerBaseline.cab.
You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand Compliance Settings.
You need to apply the configuration baseline to the servers on the production network that run SQL Server.
You create a collection named SQLServers that contains all SQL Servers from the production network.
What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click SQLServerCI, select Export, and then specify SQLServer Baseline.cab as the export file.
C. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the SQLServers collection.
D. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
E. Right-click SQLServersBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type SQLServers in the Filter… box.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
You recently migrated from System Center Configuration Manager 2007 to System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
Your network contains a client computer that runs the 64-bit version of Windows 7 and the 32-bit version ofWindows 7.
Some client computers have the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.
You have an Application named App1. 70-243 dumps
You have a 64-bit version of App1, a 32-bit version of App1, and a virtual version of App1. You need to deploy the Application to all of the client computers.
The solution must minimize the amount of administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and create a target collection for each of the deployment types.
B. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and configure global conditions for each of the deployment types.
C. Create a new package for each version of App1.
D. Create a new Application for each version of App1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to receive an email message every day that lists all non-compliant clients.
What should you do?
A. Create an alert subscription.
B. Configure a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report.
C. Configure an in-console alert.
D. Create a ConfigMgr query.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You enable Client Push.
You run Active Directory System Discovery.
You discover that some of the discovered computers do not have the System Center 2012 Configuration Manager client installed.
You need to identify why Client Push fails of the client computers.
Which log file should you review?
A. Locationservices.log
B. Smsexec.log
C. Ccm.log
D. Sdmagent.log
E. Dcmagent.log
F. Rcmctrl.log
G. Wsyncmgr.log
H. Ciagent.log
I. Hman.log
J. Contenttransfermanager.log
K. Sitestat.log
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.)
70-243 dumps
(The exhibit shows that: Server5 and Server6 are in the perimeter network, while Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 are in the internal network.)
The network contains six servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.
70-243 dumps
You need to ensure that mobile device information is available in the hardware inventory.
What should you do first?
A. Install a management point on Server5.
B. Configure IIS to support only HTTPS on Server5.
C. Install a management point on Server2.
D. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server3.
E. Install an enrollment proxy point on Server6.
F. Configure IIS to support only HTTP on Server3.
G. Install a software update point on Server3.
H. Install Network Load Balancing (NLB) on Server6.
I. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server5.
J. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server3.
K. Install a PXE-enabled protected distribution point on Server4.
L. Install the Windows Cluster service on Server6.
M. Install Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) on Server3.
N. Install a protected distribution point on Server1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You need to change the organization name displayed by Configuration Manager.
Which settings should you modify from the Configuration Manager console?
A. Client Policy
B. Computer Agent
C. User and Device Affinity
D. Compliance Settings
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration Site named Site1 and a primary site named Site2.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2. 70-243 dumps
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You manage a System Center 2012 R2 Configuration Manager Service Pack 1 (SP1) deployment. The deployment contains a reporting services point.
You subscribe to all client status reports.
You need to subscribe to an Asset Intelligence report.
From where should you configure the subscription?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. the Report Server Web service site
C. the Monitoring workspace from the Configuration Manager Console
D. SQL Server Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You add a software update point to the environment.
You receive a message indicating that SMS WSUS Synchronization failed.
You need to retrieve additional information about the message.
Which log file should you review?
A. Locationservices.log
B. Smsexec.log
C. Ccm.log
D. Sdmagent.log
E. Dcmagent.log
F. Rcmctrl.log
G. Wsyncmgr.log
H. Ciagent.log
I. Hman.log
J. Contenttransfermanager.log
K. Sitestat.log
Correct Answer: G

QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
Software Inventory and Hardware Inventory are enabled for all of the client computers.
All of the client computers have an Application named App1 installed.
App1 saves files to the C:\ABC folder.
All of the files saved by App1 have a file name extension of .abc.
You configure Software Inventory to inventory all of the files that have the .abc extension and the .exe extension.
After six months, you discover that some of the client computers failed to inventory .abc files. All of the client computers inventory .exe files.
You need to ensure that the .abc files are inventoried.
What should you do?
A. Modify C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
B. Delete C:\Program Files\App1\NO_SMS_On_Drive.sms.
C. Modify C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
D. Delete C:\ABC\Skpswi.dat.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a reporting services point.
You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS).
Which tool should you identify?
A. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
B. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
D. Microsoft Access 2010 and Reporting Services Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCA-V
Exam Name: Managing Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions exam
Exam Code: 1Y0-201
Total Questions: 129 Q&As
1Y0-201 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: A high number of Desktop OS machines are displaying as ‘Unregistered’ in Citrix Studio.
However, Desktop OS machines that are registered are functioning as expected.
What is the likely cause of this issue?
A. The Delivery Controller is unable to register with DNS.
B. The Delivery Controller is NOT configured to trust XML requests.
C. A Digital certificate is NOT installed on the Desktop OS machines.
D. The affected Desktop OS machines are unable to register with DNS.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is informed of latency at a branch office. Users report they are experiencing slow mouse and keyboard responses, as well as slow screen refreshes, while working within their Desktop OS machines. Users at the branch office access their Desktop OS machines through the NetScaler Gateway. Which tool could the administrator use to monitor the user experience at the remote office?
A. Citrix Scout
B. Citrix Studio
C. Citrix Director
D. Citrix Command Center
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to reduce power consumption during off-peak hours. With the current configuration, the Desktop OS machines will remain powered-on when users disconnect at the end of the workday. 1Y0-201 dumps How could the administrator reduce power consumption during off-peak hours?
A. Use the PowerShell cmdlet: Set-BrokerDesktopGroup.
B. Set the Reboot Schedule policy from within Citrix Studio.
C. Create a shutdown scheduled task on the Desktop OS machines.
D. Configure Power Management settings in an Active Directory Group Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What will continue to function while a XenDesktop site database is offline?
A. Citrix Studio
B. Citrix Director
C. AnonymousConnections
D. Existing user connections to Desktop OS machines
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Scenario: Auto-created client printers are enabled within a XenDesktop deployment. A Citrix Administrator receives complaints from users of the Finance group who say they do NOT have the option to print to tray three on their default printer. The administrator decides to implement session printing for only the Finance users to resolve this issue.
Which two steps should the administrator take to meet the requirements of the scenario? (Choose two.)
A. Enable legacy client printer names.
B. Configure network printers on the client device.
C. Disable automatic installation of in-box printer drivers.
D. Install the printer drivers on the Desktop OS machine.
E. Configure a session printer policy within Citrix policies.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 6
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to replicate a vDisk between two production Provisioning Services servers named PVS and PVS2. The Replication Status dialog box shows an orange warning signal with a message.
Click on the Exhibit button to view the dialog box.
1Y0-201 dumps
What could be the cause of this issue?
A. The SOAP service is NOT running on the PVS server.
B. The server time is NOT configured correctly on the PVS and PVS2 servers.
C. The Provisioning Services server does NOT have access to one of the vDisk locations.
D. The network card configurations on the PVS server do NOT match the configurations on the PVS2 server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A Citrix Administrator needs to configure email alerts on performance threshold events for a XenServer resource pool. Which three types of XenServer alerts could the administrator set in XenCenter? (Choose three.)
A. Disk usage
B. CPU usage
C. Memory usage
D. Network usage
E. Storage I/O usage
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 8
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator discovers that some user profiles have grown to over 500 MB in size. The administrator wants to reduce the size of user profiles. 1Y0-201 dumps
Which method could the administrator use to reduce the size of future user profiles without incurring data loss?
A. Enable file exclusions in a Citrix policy.
B. Disable folder redirection Application Data.
C. Enable profile streaming for the user profile.
D. Disable’deletelocally cachedprofilesonlogoff’.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Scenario: A Citrix Administrator needs to set up an alert on a service that is important for Desktop OS machine performance. The infrastructure includes 3000 Desktop OS machines and two Provisioning Services servers. Which service on the Provisioning Services server should the administrator monitor?
A. TFTP
B. BootP
C. Stream
D. Two-Stage Boot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A Citrix Administrator is given the task of creating a new maintenance version for a vDisk from an existing maintenance disk.
Which task does the administrator need to complete before the new maintenance version of the vDisk is created?
A. Merge the vDisk.
B. Promote the version.
C. Release vDisk locks.
D. Unassign the vDisk from selected devices.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A Citrix Administrator is in the process of upgrading the edition of XenDesktop to Enterprise. After uploading the new license file to the License Server, what must the administrator do to continue the upgrade?
A. Run lmadmin.exe
B. Restart the Delivery Controller
C. Refresh the License Server Administration Console
D. Change the edition of the license used within Citrix Studio
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
How could a Citrix Administrator add a XenApp 6.5 deployment to a XenDesktop 7.6 deployment so that both are manageable from within Citrix Director? 1Y0-201 dumps
A. Execute the DirectorConfig.exe tool on the Citrix Director server.
B. Install a dedicated Citrix Director server for the XenApp 6.5 environment.
C. Add the XenApp 6.5 Data Collector to the registry on the Citrix Director server.
D. Add the name of the XenApp 6.5 Data Collector to service.AutoDiscoveryAddress in IIS.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 281 Q&As
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco TelePresence MX300 G2, what is the minimum bandwidth for 1080p30?
A. 768 kbps
B. 1152 kbps
C. 1472 kbps
D. 1873 kbps
E. 2560 kbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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