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The Best Cisco APE 648-244 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two server series support Cisco Unified Communications on Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco B-Series
B. Cisco C-Series
C. Cisco MCS Series
D. Cisco R-Series
E. Cisco Unified Communications Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which two processor types or processor families are supported for Cisco Unified Communications on the Cisco Unified Computing System or specifications-based servers? (Choose two.)
A. AMD FX-8100
B. AMD Option E5
C. Intel Xeon 5600
D. Intel Xeon 6500
E. Intel Xeon E7
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum hard disk capacity that a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server supports?
A. 1.2 TB
B. 2.4 TB
C. 8 TB
D. 12 TB
E. 16 TB
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
Which one best describes a unified port?
A. Ethernet port
B. Fibre Channel port
C. host bus adapter port
D. converged port
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum amount of RAM that any Cisco C-Series server model can support?
A. 192 GB
B. 384 GB
C. 768 GB
D. 1 TB
E. 2 TB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
How many fixed ports does the Cisco UCS 6296UP Fabric Interconnect offer?
A. 20
B. 32
C. 40
D. 48
E. 96
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which one is covered by a Tested Reference Configuration server?
A. configuration of SAN and NAS devices
B. configuration settings for BIOS
C. DAS and RAID options
D. patch recommendation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two server types support a hybrid storage deployment? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C200 M2
B. Cisco UCS C210 M2
C. Cisco UCS C260 M2
D. Cisco UCS B200 M2
E. Cisco UCS B230 M2
F. Cisco UCS B440 M2
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 9
Which two entries define a valid storage option for the Cisco UCS C210 M2 TRC 1 server? (Choose two.)
A. DAS (2 disks RAID 0) for VMware
B. DAS (2 disks RAID 1) for VMware
C. DAS (4 disks RAID 5) for VMware
D. DAS (8 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
E. DAS (10 disks RAID 5) for Cisco Unified Communications applications
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two statements are true about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 3000 is installed on a UCS server.
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 replaces the previous Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 5000 can be virtualized.
D. Cisco UCS C200 M2 for Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition uses DAS with 4 disks and RAID 10.
E. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000 supports up to 50 locations.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
How much vRAM do the main four applications require when deploying Cisco Unified Communications Manager Business Edition 6000?
A. 12 GB
B. 14 GB
C. 16 GB
D. 30 GB
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
When deploying a Cisco Unified Communications solution with a maximum of 2500 users, there is an OVA file with a limited storage footprint for Cisco Unified Communications Manager that is available. Which two parameters define this storage OVA template? (Choose two.)
A. 55-GB vDisk
B. 80-GB vDisk
C. 2 * 60-GB vDisk
D. 3-GB vRAM
E. 4-GB vRAM
F. 6-GB vRAM
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
Which two server vendors can be selected when specification-based servers should be used? (Choose two.)
A. AMD
B. Dell
C. IBM
D. Intel
E. HP
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 14
What is the required minimum core speed for specification-based servers with Intel Xeon 5600 CPUs?
A. 2.13 GHz
B. 2.40 GHz
C. 2.53 GHz
D. 2.66 GHz
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
What is the minimum speed of a Fibre Channel adapter when using specification-based servers?
A. 1 Gb/s
B. 2 Gb/s
C. 4 Gb/s
D. 8 Gb/s
E. 16 Gb/s
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which one is not a parameter to generate the License MAC?
A. NIC duplex
B. IP mask
C. SMTP location
D. time zone
E. SNMP community
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which CLI command is used to apply a new identity to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher?
A. utils import afg
B. utils import config
C. utils import xml
D. utils ident new
E. utils ident config
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which two applications support the New Identity feature? 648-244 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Session Management Edition
C. Cisco Unity Connection
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In a 100-user Cisco Unified Communications Manager deployment, what is the utilization of the CPU and memory during business hours in normal operation?
A. 10 percent
B. 17 percent
C. 26 percent
D. 31 percent
E. 37 percent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
When monitoring a host server’s resource utilization, what is the default timeframe to refresh the data in the utilization view?
A. real time
B. 10 seconds
C. 20 seconds
D. manual refresh
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which CLI command is used to power down a Cisco Unified Communications applications server?
A. utils server shutdown
B. utils system close
C. utils system shutdown
D. config server shutdown
E. config system shutdown
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
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The Best Cisco CCNP Security 300-206 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q11-Q40)

QUESTION 11
What is the primary purpose of stateful pattern recognition in Cisco IPS networks?
A. mitigating man-in-the-middle attacks
B. using multi packet inspection across all protocols to identify vulnerability-based attacks and to thwart attacks that hide within a data stream
C. detecting and preventing MAC address spoofing in switched environments
D. identifying Layer 2 ARP attacks
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two features does Cisco Security Manager provide? (Choose two.)
A. Configuration and policy deployment before device discovery
B. Health and performance monitoring
C. Event management and alerting
D. Command line menu for troubleshooting
E. Ticketing management and tracking
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 13
Which three options are default settings for NTP parameters on a Cisco device? (Choose three.)
A. NTP authentication is enabled.
B. NTP authentication is disabled.
C. NTP logging is enabled.
D. NTP logging is disabled.
E. NTP access is enabled.
F. NTP access is disabled.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Your company is replacing a high-availability pair of Cisco ASA 5550 firewalls with the newer Cisco ASA 5555X models. Due to budget constraints, one Cisco ASA 5550 will be replaced at a time.
Which statement about the minimum requirements to set up stateful failover between these two firewalls is true?
A. You must install the USB failover cable between the two Cisco ASAs and provide a 1 Gigabit Ethernetinterface for state exchange.
B. It is not possible to use failover between different Cisco ASA models.
C. You must have at least 1 Gigabit Ethernet interface between the two Cisco ASAs for state exchange.
D. You must use two dedicated interfaces. One link is dedicated to state exchange and the other link isforheartbeats.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access list east?
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. 300-206 dumps Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which kind of Layer 2 attack targets the STP root bridge election process and allows an attacker to control the flow of traffic?
A. man-in-the-middle
B. denial of service
C. distributed denial of service
D. CAM overflow
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which component does Cisco ASDM require on the host Cisco ASA 5500 Series or Cisco PIX security appliance?
A. a DES or 3DES license
B. a NAT policy server
C. a SQL database
D. a Kerberos key
E. a digital certificate
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
What are three attributes that can be applied to a user account with RBAC? (Choose three.)
A. domain
B. password
C. ACE tag
D. user roles
E. VDC group tag
F. expiry date
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 20
A switch is being configured at a new location that uses statically assigned IP addresses. Which will ensure that ARP inspection works as expected?
A. Configure the ‘no-dhcp’ keyword at the end of the ip arp inspection command
B. Enable static arp inspection using the command ‘ip arp inspection static vlan vlan- number
C. Configure an arp access-list and apply it to the ip arp inspection command
D. Enable port security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
At which firewall severity level will debugs appear on a Cisco ASA?
A. 7
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
A network printer has a DHCP server service that cannot be disabled. How can a layer 2 switch be configured to prevent the printer from causing network issues?
A. Remove the ip helper-address
B. Configure a Port-ACL to block outbound TCP port 68
C. Configure DHCP snooping
D. Configure port-security
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
You have explicitly added the line deny ipv6 any log to the end of an IPv6 ACL on a router interface. Which two ICMPv6 packet types must you explicitly allow to enable traffic to traverse the interface? (Choose two.)
A. router solicitation
B. router advertisement
C. neighbor solicitation
D. neighbor advertisement
E. redirect
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 24
Which two device types can Cisco Prime Security Manager manage in Multiple Device mode? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco ESA
B. Cisco ASA
C. Cisco WSA
D. Cisco ASA CX
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 25
What are two security features at the access port level that can help mitigate Layer 2 attacks? 300-206 dumps (Choose two.)
A. DHCP snooping
B. IP Source Guard
C. Telnet
D. Secure Shell
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
When it is configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the switchport port-security maximum command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 27
In which way are management packets classified on a firewall that operates in multiple context mode?
A. by their interface IP address
B. by the routing table
C. by NAT
D. by their MAC addresses
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 29
Which command enables the HTTP server daemon for Cisco ASDM access?
A. http server enable
B. http server enable 443
C. crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024
D. no http server enable
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which ASA feature is used to keep track of suspected attackers who create connections to too many hosts or ports?
A. complex threat detection
B. scanning threat detection
C. basic threat detection
D. advanced threat detection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 31
Which command sets the source IP address of the NetFlow exports of a device?
A. ip source flow-export
B. ip source netflow-export
C. ip flow-export source
D. ip netflow-export source
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
You have installed a web server on a private network. Which type of NAT must you implement to enable access to the web server for public Internet users?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. network object NAT
D. twice NAT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 33
When you configure a Botnet Traffic Filter on a Cisco firewall, what are two optional tasks? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the use of dynamic databases.
B. Add static entries to the database.
C. Enable DNS snooping.
D. Enable traffic classification and actions.
E. Block traffic manually based on its syslog information.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 34
Which two configurations are the minimum needed to enable EIGRP on the Cisco ASA appliance? (Choose two.)
A. Enable the EIGRP routing process and specify the AS number.
B. Define the EIGRP default-metric.
C. Configure the EIGRP router ID.
D. Use the neighbor command(s) to specify the EIGRP neighbors.
E. Use the network command(s) to enable EIGRP on the Cisco ASA interface(s).
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 35
What is the default behavior of an access list on a Cisco ASA?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. It will have no affect until applied to an interface, tunnel-group or other traffic flow.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which three statements about the software requirements for a firewall failover configuration are true? (Choose three.)
A. The firewalls must be in the same operating mode.
B. The firewalls must have the same major and minor software version.
C. The firewalls must be in the same context mode.
D. The firewalls must have the same major software version but can have different minor versions.
E. The firewalls can be in different context modes.
F. The firewalls can have different Cisco AnyConnect images.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 37
Which two configurations are necessary to enable password-less SSH login to an IOS router? 300-206 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Enter a copy of the administrator’s public key within the SSH key-chain
B. Enter a copy of the administrator’s private key within the SSH key-chain
C. Generate a 512-bit RSA key to enable SSH on the router
D. Generate an RSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
E. Generate a 512-bit ECDSA key to enable SSH on the router
F. Generate a ECDSA key of at least 768 bits to enable SSH on the router
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 38
When configuring security contexts on the Cisco ASA, which three resource class limits can be set using a rate limit? (Choose three.)
A. address translation rate
B. Cisco ASDM session rate
C. connections rate
D. MAC-address learning rate (when in transparent mode)
E. syslog messages rate
F. stateful packet inspections rate
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 39
What is a required attribute to configure NTP authentication on a Cisco ASA?
A. Key ID
B. IPsec
C. AAA
D. IKEv2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 40
What is the maximum jumbo frame size for IPS standalone appliances with 1G and 10G fixed or add-on interfaces?
A. 1024 bytes
B. 1518 bytes
C. 2156 bytes
D. 9216 bytes
Correct Answer: D

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The Best Cisco CCNP Routing and Switching 300-135 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level.
They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Refer to the configuration statements shown in the graphic above.
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 10.1.1.1 host 172.16.1.1
R1(config)#access-list 199 permit tcp host 172.16.1.1 host 10.1.1.1
R1(config)#end
R1#debug ip packet 199 detail
Which statement reflects what the effect is of this configuration sequence?
A. These commands will generate an error message because you cannot use an access list with any debug commands.
B. These commands will have no effect at all. The debug ip packet command will work as normal and display info for all IP packets.
C. These commands turn on debug ip packet only for packets between hosts 10.1.1.1 and 172.16.1.1.
D. These commands will only work when you specify only one host rather than two.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
What is the result if you configure two devices with the ntp server command?
A. Nothing will happen until one of the devices is configured with the prefer parameter.
B. The NTP protocol will determine which server is most reliable and will synchronize to that server.
C. The device with the highest priority will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
D. The device with the lowest MAC address will become the active server and the other device will become the backup server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
A technician is troubleshooting connectivity problems between two routers that are directly connected through a serial line. The technician notices that the serial line is up, but cannot see any neighbors displayed in the output of the show cdp neighbors command. In which OSI layer is the problem most likely occurring?
A. physical
B. data link
C. network
D. transport
E. application
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
What are two approaches to maintaining a network?(Choose two.)
A. PPDIOO
B. structured
C. bottoms up
D. interrupt-driven
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 16
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? 300-135 dumps (Select two)
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 17
At which layer of the OSI model does the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) operate at?
A. Layer 5
B. Layer 4
C. Layer 3
D. Layer 2
E. Layer 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing?
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 19
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages.
What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Correct Answer: CD

Explanation:
SIA routes are due to the fact that reply packets are not received. This could be caused by a router which is unable to send reply packets. The router could have reached the limit of its capacity, or it could be malfunctioning.
Notes: If a router does not receive a reply to all outstanding queries within 3 minutes, the route goes to the stuck in active (SIA) state. The router then resets the neighbors that fail to reply by going active on all routes known through that neighbor, and it re-advertises all routes to that neighbor.

QUESTION 20
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two)
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
Which of the following statements regarding documentation would not be considered a helpful step in the troubleshooting process?
A. Use the Cisco Auto Configuration tool.
B. Use the Cisco Rollback feature.
C. Automate documentation.
D. Schedule documentation checks.
E. Use the Cisco Configuration Archive tool.
F. Require documentation prior to a ticket being closed out.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Given the multicast IP address of 224.193.5.10, what would the corresponding multicast MAC address be?
A. 00-00-0c-c0-05-0a
B. 00-00-0c-cl-05-0a
C. 01-00-5e-00-00-0c
D. 01-00-5e-41-05-0a
E. 00-00-0c-01-00-5e
F. 01-00-5e-cl-05-0a
Correct Answer: F

Explanation:
First three octets are 01-00-05e for every single multicast address.Las three octets are the hexadecimal version of the las three octets of the IP address, in this case 193.5.10 is translated to c1-05-0a.

QUESTION 23
Which of the following are common issues that should be considered when establishing or troubleshooting site-to-site VPNs? (Choose all that apply.)
A. User authentication
B. Overlapping IP address space
C. GRE or IPsec configuration
D. MTU size
E. VPN client software
F. Authentication server configured ly
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24
Which of the following topology situations would be a qood candidate for configuring DMVPN?
A. Extranet VPN
B. Managed overlay VPN topology
C. Hub-and-spoke VPN topology
D. Central-site VPN topology
E. Full mesh VPN topology
F. Remote-access VPN topology
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 25
Which of the following is not a valid reason for a packet to be punted?
A. The TCAM has reached capacity
B. An unknown destination MAC address
C. A packet being discarded due to a security violation
D. A Telnet packet from a session being initiated with the switch
E. Routing protocols sending broadcast traffic
F. A packet belonging to a GRE tunnel
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
A new router is added to an existing HSRP standby group. One of the existing routers is in an active state, the other is in a standby state. 300-135 dumps Under what circumstance will the new router become the active router?
A. The new router will become active immediately because it’s the newest router introduced into the group.
B. The new router can become active only when the existing active router and the existing standby router become unavailable.
C. The new router has a lower priority value.
D. The new router will never become active unless the existing active router becomes unavailable.
E. The new router has preempt configured and a higher priority
F. The new router has a higher priority value.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 27
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Preferred server
A router can be configured to prefer an NTP source over another. A preferred server’s responses are discarded only if they vary dramatically from the other time sources.
Otherwise, the preferred server is used for synchronization without consideration of the other time sources. Preferred servers are usually specified when they are known to be extremely accurate. To specify a preferred server, use the prefer keyword appended to the ntp server command. The following example tells the router to prefer TimeServerOne over
TimeServerTwo:
Router#config terminal
Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerOne prefer
Router(config)#ntp server TimeServerTwo
Router(config)#^Z
Reference: Hardening Cisco Routers By Thomas Akin February 2002 0-596-00166-5,Chapter 10, NTP.

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is an accurate description of the command copy startupconfig ftp://kevin:[email protected]?
A. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to RAM.
B. The command is not valid on a Cisco router.
C. The configuration file in RAM is copied to an FTP server.
D. The configuration file in NVRAM is copied to an FTP server.
E. The configuration on the FTP server is copied to NVRAM.
F. The configuration will be copied from NVRAM to an FTP server with a filename of Kevin.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
Whichof the following are valid modes of packet switching on most routers?(Choose all that apply.)
A. Cisco Express Fonvarding
B. FIB switching
C. Cache switching
D. Optimized switching
E. Process switching
F. Fast switching
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 30
What can you modify in an extended ping?
A. Value
B. Strict
C. Record
D. Timestamp
E. TTL
Correct Answer: BCD

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The Best Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
Drag Drop
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QUESTION 2
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QUESTION 6
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300-115 dumps Drag the attributes on the left to the types of VLAN designs that they describe on the right.
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300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 11
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QUESTION 12
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Match the HSRP states on the left with the correct definition on the right.
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300-115 dumps
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 13
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300-115 dumps
QUESTION 14
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PortFast / BPDU Guard / BPDU Filter. 300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 15
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PVST+ / Rapid PVST+ / MSTP
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QUESTION 16
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STP Timers
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300-115 dumps
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QUESTION 17
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QUESTION 19
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QUESTION 20
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Correct Answer:
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The Best Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-887 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 2 Mbps of bandwidth for outgoing FTP traffic on interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 on Cisco IOS XR. Which method accomplishes this configuration?
A. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
B. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
C. configure terminal
access-list 100 permit ip any any eq 21
policy-map POLICY_1
match ip access-list 100
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
D. configure terminal
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? 642-887 dumps (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress, classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Which configuration fulfills the requirement of configuring LDP with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding on a router with 5 minutes time to hold the forwarding table information and 1 minute retry timer value for an LDP connection?
A. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
B. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
C. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
D. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
Cisco MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is enabled?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. 642-887 dumps Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 10 Mbps priority queue for traffic matched by class-map VOICE_CLASS on Cisco IOS XR. Which policy must be applied for outgoing traffic on interface FastEthernet 0/0/1?
A. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
B. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
priority percent 10
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
C. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 1000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
D. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10 Mbps
exceed-action shape
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

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Best Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q25)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 3
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources? 400-201 dumps
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior?
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS?
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. 400-201 dumps Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The NOC engineer noticed that the R2 router system clock is not updated and synchronized to the NTP server that is configured on the R10 router. What is the issue?
A. The access list NTP_Clients is missing.
B. The access group is misconfigured.
C. The maximum number of peers and client associations is exceeded.
D. The authentication key is mismatched.
E. The PE2 router should be configured as an NTP peer instead of as a client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that insures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. TE FRR
B. IP FRR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. NSR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop the MPLS inter ASVPN options on left to right.
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-201 dumps
QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
DND QOS Characteristics on the left onto its correct QOS Mechanism on the right :
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-201 dumps

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High Quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two) 100-105 dumps
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With the configuration above, when we type andquot;do show vlanandquot; we would not see VLAN 10 in the VLAN database because it has not been created yet.

QUESTION 6
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr.

QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle:
Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network security plan i.

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct.

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.
100-105 dumps
Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. 100-105 dumps How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? 100-105 dumps (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation/Reference:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers.
In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands.

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 281 Q&As
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco TelePresence MX300 G2, what is the minimum bandwidth for 1080p30?
A. 768 kbps
B. 1152 kbps
C. 1472 kbps
D. 1873 kbps
E. 2560 kbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Zhich is the Cisco recommended technique for verifying the `as-is’ state of the business?
A. Presenting root cause analysis
B. Discussing the Business Model Canvas
C. Modeling high volume parts of the customer’s business process
D. Using “The five whys” questioning approach
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option represents a subject expert from a Cisco Channel Partner’s ecosystem recommended for you to use as a source of insight?
A. The customer’s lead procurement official
B. A government regulatory official familiar with the customer
C. A sales rep for one of the Partner’s competitors
D. An IT architect working at a software company that markets solutions bundled with the Channel Partner’s offerings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The business value approach helps you to do what? 100-105 pdf
A. Ensure that requirements gathering take the smallest possible resource and time
B. Use various techniques to add value through the discovery process
C. Bring sales opportunities earlier into the customer business roadmap, to avoid risks from possible budget cuts
D. Recommend services beyond the customer’s skill set, so you gain higher revenue
Correct Answer: B
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 14            100-105 dumps
Which is the preferred aid to help you structure discovery meetings with customers?
A. IT cost analysis
B. Business case for the last two proposals
C. An article with a checklist showing advantages of your product vs.competitors
D. Strategic Question Asking Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When discovering requirements, which behavior is appropriate?
A. End meetings earlier than planned to show a sense of urgency
B. Avoid taking notes, since you can always return for a follow up
C. Answer customer questions with details and numbers, to convince them you know what they need
D. Actively listen to the customer’s comments and effectively take notes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which is recommended as a good source to provide requirements in a customer engagement?
A. Individuals at firms who have purchased the customer’s services
B. Subject experts from the company’s strategy organization
C. Consultants who did projects for the customer organization 3 years ago
D. 3rd party staffing specialists / recruiters hired by the customer to fill positions during a busy work season
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When 802.1X is implemented, how do the client (supplicant) and authenticator communicate? 100-105 pdf
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. MAB
D. EAPOL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which approach is recommended for gaining deeper insight into pain points raised by a senior customer business leader?
A. Inform the customer of some statistics about their competitors, to get a reaction
B. Ask open ended questions about goals and impacts from challenges
C. Lead an exercise to define revenue the customer could gain from using remote experts on sales calls
D. Speak with peers of the customer leader, to find out whether this person has a reputation for making problems sound bigger than they really are
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which is true of a Business Motivation Model? 100-105 dumps
A. It includes detailed financial goals for the customer
B. It companies the priorities across levels of the customer organization
C. It requires that you understand the customer’s bonus plan for executives
D. It describes influences that are behind customer priorities and operating activities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint and statement of requirements are equivalent in accuracy
B. Viewpoints describe a stakeholder’s preference and desired capability
C. Requirements can be met, while viewpoints reflect stretch goals that are more difficult to realize
D. For a viewpoint to be considered, you should confirm at least three stakeholders agree it is a top priority
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 pdf
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)? 300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up 300-135 dumps
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 dumps
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255
command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 pdf
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

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