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The Best Cisco CCNP Service Provider 642-887 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
An engineer is allocating a determined amount of bandwidth to a customer Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to guarantee its availability on a 24/7 SLA type. Which option must be configured to make sure the customer is able to use the bandwidth agreed on the SLA?
A. RSVP that guarantees bandwidth availability end-to-end
B. Cisco MPLS TE tunnel to signal the bandwidth required
C. a QoS policy to reinforce the RSVP bandwidth reservation
D. overprovisioning to guarantee bandwidth
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
On the Cisco ASR9K router, when using the bandwidth command to specify the minimum guaranteed bandwidth to be allocated for a specific class of traffic, what will be used as the queuing algorithm?
A. custom queuing
B. CBWFQ
C. WFQ
D. FIFO
E. priority queuing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A DSCP value of 41 in decimal corresponds to which IP precedence value?
A. 3 ?Flash
B. 4 ?Flash Override
C. 5 ?Critical
D. 6 ?Internet Control
E. 7 ?Network Control
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 2 Mbps of bandwidth for outgoing FTP traffic on interface FastEthernet 1/1/1 on Cisco IOS XR. Which method accomplishes this configuration?
A. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
B. configure terminal
class-map FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
exit
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
C. configure terminal
access-list 100 permit ip any any eq 21
policy-map POLICY_1
match ip access-list 100
bandwidth 2000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy output POLICY_1
end
commit
D. configure terminal
policy-map POLICY_1
class FTP_CLASS
match protocol ftp
bandwidth 2000000
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 1/1/1
service-policy input POLICY_1
end
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which three mechanisms are used to implement MPLS TE? 642-887 dumps (Choose three.)
A. tunnel interface
B. CSPF
C. RSVP
D. LDP
E. MP-BGP
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 7
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress, classify based on the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid? (Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 9
Which configuration fulfills the requirement of configuring LDP with Cisco Nonstop Forwarding on a router with 5 minutes time to hold the forwarding table information and 1 minute retry timer value for an LDP connection?
A. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
B. mpls ldp
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
C. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 300
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 60
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
D. mpls ldp
nsr
graceful-restart
graceful-restart forwarding state-holdtime 5
graceful-restart reconnect-timeout 1
interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0/0
!
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which three fields must be the same in an IPv6 header to consider different packets on the same flow? (Choose three.)
A. source port
B. destination address
C. destination port
D. source address
E. flow label
F. transport protocol type
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 11
Cisco MPLS TE resource attributes that are configured locally for each link are distributed to the headend router of the traffic engineering tunnel using which protocol?
A. BGP
B. MP-BGP
C. LDP
D. RSVP
E. OSPF or IS-IS with TE extension
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 12
Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is enabled?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
The regional operation center deploys a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel over the company’s core network. The Cisco MPLS TE tunnel is up and no error is detected, but no traffic is traversing the tunnel. 642-887 dumps Which two issues are possible causes? (Choose two.)
A. The provider edge router is not performing the correct redistribution.
B. The interior gateway protocol has no knowledge of the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
C. No static route has been defined to route data traffic over the Cisco MPLS TE tunnel.
D. The customer edge router is injecting rogue IPv4 prefixes in the provider edge routing table.
E. The end-to-end label switched path has not been established.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 14
An engineer has been tasked to configure a guaranteed 10 Mbps priority queue for traffic matched by class-map VOICE_CLASS on Cisco IOS XR. Which policy must be applied for outgoing traffic on interface FastEthernet 0/0/1?
A. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
B. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
priority percent 10
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
C. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 1000
exceed-action drop
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
D. configure
policy-map VOICE_POLICY
class VOICE_CLASS
police rate 10 Mbps
exceed-action shape
exit
priority level 1
exit
exit
interface FastEthernet 0/0/1
service-policy output VOICE_POLICY
commit
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which two features are used to provide Cisco MPLS TE node and link protection? (Choose two.)
A. autoroute
B. fast reroute
C. backup tunnels
D. BFD
Correct Answer: BC

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Best Cisco CCIE Service Provider 400-201 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q25)

QUESTION 1
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that ensures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. IP FRR
B. NSR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. TE FRR
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2
The Attribute field within the IS-IS LSP header contains which of the following flags? (Choose four)
A. IS-Type
B. Overload (LSPDBOL)
C. Pseudonode (PN)
D. Attached (ATT)
E. Fragment (Frag-Nr)
F. Partition (P)
Correct Answer: ABDF

QUESTION 3
One ISP has hundreds of routers that run IS-IS, you want to redesign the network to improve performance and convergence, which are correct ways? (Choose two)
A. Bidirectional forwarding failure detection
B. tuning of SPF PRC and LSP…….exp backoff timers C. IS-IS fast flooding of LSPs
C. IP Event Dampending
D. tuning of IS-IS hello parameters
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The prefix 10.1.1.64/28 should be advertised to the PE router, yet the prefix is not being received by the PE. Which configuration should be applied on CE in order to fix this issue?
A. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP seq 1 permit 10.1.1.64/28
B. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.128 mask 255.255.255.128
C. ip prefix-list ROUTES_TO_SP permit 10.1.1.64/28
D. router bgp 65000no network 10.1.1.64 mask 255.255.255.240 network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco IOS XR Virtualization technology provides full isolation between virtualized routing instances for extra control plane resources? 400-201 dumps
A. HVR
B. SVR
C. SDR
D. DRP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which is the main goal of BGPsec regards to improve BGP security?
A. Reduces risk of improper route propagation from unauthorized AS numbers
B. Configures BGP route verification by storing routes in a database used to validate AS numbers
C. Adds encryption to route propagation outside the iBGP AS
D. Increases legitimacy and authenticity of BGP advertisements
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two models are used in MPLS TE bandwidth constraints? (Choose two)
A. mdm
B. rdm
C. bdm
D. mam
E. tern
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 8
In a typical three-node OpenStack deployment, which two components are part of the controller node? (Choose two)
A. Neutron Layer 3 agent
B. Neutron DHCP agent
C. Identity Service
D. Neutron Layer 2 agent
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are the two benefits of graceful restart? (Choose two)
A. Graceful restart allows session information recovery without disruption to the network.
B. A node can perform a graceful restart to help a neighbor recover its state. The label bindings are kept on state information, which helps the failed node recover faster and does not affect the current forward traffic.
C. Graceful restart allows a node to recover state from its neighbor when there is no RP or before the device undergoes SSO.
D. Graceful restart does not allow session information recovery.
E. During a graceful restart, the router removes any stale prefixes after a timer for stale entries expires
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which three statements about the BGP next-hop attribute are true? (Choose three.)
A. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs do not modify the next-hop attribute.
B. By default, iBGP sessions change the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers to self address.
C. By default, the next-hop attribute is not changed when a prefix is reflected by the route reflector
D. EBGP sessions between confederation sub ASs change the next-hop attribute to peer address.
E. By default, iBGP sessions preserve the next-hop attribute learned from eBGP peers.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 11
What three major tasks are performed by a Designated Intermediate System in an ISIS pseudonode environment? (Choose three.)
A. updating the pseudonode LSP
B. maintaining pseudonode link-state information
C. creating the pseudonode LSP
D. flooding LSPs over the LAN
E. election of the pseudonode
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 12
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that than connect them to each other. Anengineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. the mpls ldp neighbor targeted command
B. the mpls ip command on a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel
C. the mpls ldp discovery targeted-hello accept command
D. the mpls ldp session protection command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The 2.6.6.6/32 prefix is flapping when PE1 is flapping. Which action can fix this issue?
A. On PE2, allow only redistribution from BGP into IS-IS; on PE3, allow only redistribution from IS-OS into BGP.
B. Configure all IS-IS instances as level-1-only.
C. Configure a sham link between PE2 and PE3.
D. On PE2 and PE3, reconfigure redistribute BGP into IS-IS using the metric-type external parameter.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
When a traceroute is performed from a PC behind R2, the next hop on R1 for IPv4 is 10.0.1.2, and for IPv6 it is 2001:DB8:2:2. What is causing thus behavior?
A. GigabitEthernet2/1 has a Level 1-only adjacency. This causes it to be the preferred path for the IPv6 packets.
B. When SPF ran on R2, it calculated two equal paths to R1. It was a coincidence that than the packets choose different paths.
C. Multitopology is enabled on R2, which causes the IPv6 packets to use a different path than the IPv4 packets.
D. 2001:DB8:2::2 is on a Gigabit Ethernet interface. Because its speed is higher than Fast Ethernet, the IS-IS metric is preferred.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which MPLS TE component keeps track of the flooding and admission control?
A. MPLS TE priorities
B. RSVP
C. link attributes
D. link manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
Which router is the DIS?
A. router-22
B. router-44
C. router-33 and router-44
D. router-11
E. router-33
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 17
Which is one difference between H-VPLS and VPLS?
A. VPLS is a point-to-point Layer-2 services and H-VPLS is a multipoint Layer-2 services.
B. H-VPLS reduces signaling overhead and packet replication requirementsfor the provider edge.
C. VPLS improve scalability concerns identified on H-VPLS implementation.
D. H-VPLS connects using also other Layer-2 encapsulation such as PPP and VPLS connects using Ethernet encapsulation only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
A network engineer wants to deploy a solution that allows for 200 DS1 s and 100 DS0s that are multiplexed to a single interface on a Cisco 7600 Series Router. 400-201 dumps Which interface type satisfies this requirement?
A. Channelized T3/E3 (DS0)
B. Channelized OC-12/STM-4
C. OC-12/STM-4
D. OC-48c/STM-16
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
In an MPLS VPN environment, the QoS marking over the MPLS backbone must be different from the one that is received from the customer. The forwarding on the egress PE is based on the marking that is set by the ingress PE. Which null label and QoS mode can achieve this?
A. MPLS explicit null with pipe mode
B. MPLS implicit null with short pipe mode
C. MPLS implicit null with uniform mode
D. MPLS explicit null with uniform mode
E. MPLS explicit null with short pipe mode
F. MPLS implicit null with pipe mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit.
400-201 dumps
The NOC engineer noticed that the R2 router system clock is not updated and synchronized to the NTP server that is configured on the R10 router. What is the issue?
A. The access list NTP_Clients is missing.
B. The access group is misconfigured.
C. The maximum number of peers and client associations is exceeded.
D. The authentication key is mismatched.
E. The PE2 router should be configured as an NTP peer instead of as a client.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
A network engineer is responsible for implementing a solution with Cisco IOS XR Software that insures continuous forwarding during a control plane failure. Which two technologies should the engineer consider? (Choose two.)
A. TE FRR
B. IP FRR
C. graceful restart
D. BFD
E. NSR
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 22
With EIGRP DUAL, a feasible successor is considered loop-free if which condition is true?
A. Its AD is equal to the metric of the successor
B. Its AD is less than the successor’s FD
C. Its AD is equal to the successor’s FD
D. Its AD is greater than the successor’s FD
E. Its FD is equal to the metric of the successor
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
A network engineer needs to connect two core switches that use Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in an MPLS backbone and that are separated by a distance of 60 km. Which Cisco GBIC achieves this goal?
A. Cisco 1000BASE-T GBIC
B. Cisco 1000BASE-SX GBIC
C. Cisco 1000BASE-LX/LH GBIC
D. Cisco 1000BASE-ZX GBIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
DRAG DROP
Drag and Drop the MPLS inter ASVPN options on left to right.
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-201 dumps
QUESTION 25
DRAG DROP
DND QOS Characteristics on the left onto its correct QOS Mechanism on the right :
Select and Place:
400-201 dumps
Correct Answer:
400-201 dumps

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100-105 dumps

High Quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
Which of the following is true regarding the configuration of SwitchA?
A. only 5 simultaneous remote connections are possible
B. remote connections using ssh will require a username and password
C. only connections from the local network will be possible
D. console access to SwitchA requires a password
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
What two things can the technician determine by successfully pinging from this computer to the IP address 172.16.236.1? (Choose two) 100-105 dumps
A. The network card on the computer is functioning correctly.
B. The default static route on the gateway router is correctly configured.
C. The correct default gateway IP address is configured on the computer.
D. The device with the IP address 172.16.236.1 is reachable over the network.
E. The default gateway at 172.16.236.1 is able to forward packets to the internet.
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation/Reference:
The source and destination addresses are on the same network therefore, a default gateway is not necessary for communication between these two addresses.

QUESTION 4
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers?
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The Internet Protocol Suite, TCP/IP, is a suite of protocols used for communication over the internet. The TCP/ IP model was created after the OSI 7 layer model for two major reasons.

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Which statement describes the effect of this configuration?
A. The VLAN 10 VTP configuration is displayed.
B. VLAN 10 spanning-tree output is displayed.
C. The VLAN 10 configuration is saved when the router exits VLAN configuration mode.
D. VLAN 10 is added to the VLAN database.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: With the configuration above, when we type andquot;do show vlanandquot; we would not see VLAN 10 in the VLAN database because it has not been created yet.

QUESTION 6
Which value is indicated by the next hop in a routing table?
A. preference of the route source
B. IP address of the remote router for forwarding the packets
C. how the route was learned
D. exit interface IP address for forwarding the packets
Correct Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The routing table contains network/next hop associations. These associations tell a router that a particular destination can be optimally reached by sending the packet to a specific router that repr.

QUESTION 7
Which statement about routing protocols is true?
A. Link-state routing protocols choose a path by the number of hops to the destination.
B. OSPF is a link-state routing protocol.
C. Distance-vector routing protocols use the Shortest Path First algorithm.
D. IS-IS is a distance-vector routing protocol.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
From Cisco CCENT Exam Essentials study guide by Todd Lammle:
Know what the first part of a comprehensive network security plan is. The first part of your comprehensive network security plan i.

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network has been planned as shown, Which three statements accurately describe the areas and devices in the network plan? (Choose three.)
A. Network Device A is a switch.
B. Network Device B is a switch.
C. Network Device A is a hub.
D. Network Device B is a hub.
E. Area 1 contains a Layer 2 device.
F. Area 2 contains a Layer 2 device.
Correct Answer: ADE

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: AREA 1 has andquot;multiple collision domainsandquot; so Network Device A must be a device operating in Layer 2 or above (a router or switch) -andgt; A andamp; E are correct.

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics apply to Layer 2 switches? (Choose two.)
A. Increases the number of collision domains
B. Decreases the number of collision domains
C. Implements VLAN
D. Decreases the number of broadcast domains
E. Uses the IP address to make decisions for forwarding data packets
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation/Reference:
Layer 2 switches offer a number of benefits to hubs, such as the use of VLANs and each switch port is in its own separate collision domain, thus eliminating collisions on the segment.

QUESTION 11
Refer to the topology and switching table shown in the graphic.
100-105 dumps
Host B sends a frame to Host C. What will the switch do with the frame?
A. Drop the frame
B. Send the frame out all ports except port 0/2
C. Return the frame to Host B
D. Send an ARP request for Host C
E. Send an ICMP Host Unreachable message to Host B
F. Record the destination MAC address in the switching table and send the frame directly to Host C
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Two hosts are attached to a switch with the default configuration. Which statement about the configuration is true?
A. IP routing must be enabled to allow the two hosts to communicate.
B. The two hosts are in the same broadcast domain.
C. The switch must be configured with a VLAN to allow the two hosts to communicate.
D. Port security prevents the hosts from connecting to the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Host A can communicate with Host B but not with Hosts C or D. 100-105 dumps How can the network administrator solve this problem?
A. Configure Hosts C and D with IP addresses in the 192.168.2.0 network.
B. Install a router and configure a route to route between VLANs 2 and 3.
C. Install a second switch and put Hosts C and D on that switch while Hosts A and B remain on the original switch.
D. Enable the VLAN trunking protocol on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Two VLANs require a router in between otherwise they cannot communicate. Different VLANs and different IP subnets need a router to route between them.

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
The network is converged.After link-state advertisements are received from Router_A, what information will Router_E contain in its routing table for the subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96?
A. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, FastEthemet0/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
B. 208.149.23.64[110/1] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
C. 208.149.23.64[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/13] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, FastEthemet0/0
D. 208.149.23.64[110/3] via 190.172.23.10, 00:00:07, Serial1/0 208.149.23.96[110/3] via 190.173.23.10, 00:00:16, Serial1/0
Correct Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:
Router_E learns two subnets subnets 208.149.23.64 and 208.149.23.96 via Router_A through FastEthernet interface.
The interface cost is calculated with the formula 108 / Bandwidth.

QUESTION 15
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4.
Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance.

QUESTION 16
Which three approaches can be used while migrating from an IPv4 addressing scheme to an IPv6 scheme? 100-105 dumps (Choose three)
A. static mapping of IPv4 address to IPv6 addresses
B. configuring IPv4 tunnels between IPv6 islands
C. use DHCPv6 to map IPv4 addresses to IPv6 addresses
D. use proxying and translation (NAT-PT) to translate IPv6 packets into IPv4 packets
E. configure IPv6 directly
F. enable dual-stack routing
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation/Reference:
Connecting IPv6 islands with tunnels An IPv6 island is a network made of IPv6 links directly connected by IPv6 routers.
In the early days of IPv6 deployment, there are many IPv6 islands.

QUESTION 17
An administrator is in the process of changing the configuration of a router. What command will allow the administrator to check the changes that have been made prior to saving the new configuration?
A. Router# show startup-config
B. Router# show current-config
C. Router# show running-config
D. Router# show memory
E. Router# show flash
F. Router# show processes
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
This command followed by the appropriate parameter will show the running config hence the admin will be able to see what changes have been made, and then they can be saved.

QUESTION 18
Which network device functions only at Layer 1 of the OSI model?
100-105 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
Correct Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
Most hubs are amplifying the electrical signal; therefore, they are really repeaters with several ports. Hubs and repeaters are Layer 1 (physical layer) devices.

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and has made a console connection to the NY router. After establishing the connection they are unable to backup the configuration file and IOS of the NY router to the TFTP server. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The NY router has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
D. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:
The TFTP server is using a mask of 255.255.255.240 (/28) while the router is configured with a /29. Because of this, the Atlanta router does not see the TFTP server as being in the same subnet.

QUESTION 20
Which of the following IP addresses are valid Class B host addresses if a default Class B mask is in use? 100-105 dumps (Choose two.)
A. 10.6.8.35
B. 133.6.5.4
C. 192.168.5.9
D. 127.0.0.1
E. 190.6.5.4
Correct Answer: BE

Explanation/Reference:
The IP addresses 133.6.5.4 and 190.6.5.4 are both valid Class B addresses when a default mask is in use. The Class B default mask is 255.255.0.0 and the range of valid addresses is 128.0.0.0- 191.2.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Collaboration
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Video Network Devices v1.0
Exam Code: 210-065
Total Questions: 281 Q&As
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
QUESTION 1
The microphone on a Cisco TelePresence System 3000 is switching incorrectly to a camera that does not have an active speaker. What is the first step that an engineer should take to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Check whether the microphone is properly plugged in.
B. Run the microphone calibration procedure.
C. Plug all microphones into the primary codec.
D. Check whether the cable from the microphone is plugged into the correct receptor on the codec.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer is deploying a Cisco Media Experience Engine 3500 to provide various capabilities for ingesting and processing video media and production capabilities. Which two advances does the Cisco MXE 3500 provide? (Choose two.)
A. automated graphical integration that can embed metadata overlays on videos during processing
B. over 2 terabytes of storage for both local and streaming media applications
C. automated ingesting of video files based on watch folders
D. clustering capability of up to 20 resource nodes to handle and balance incoming media requests and processing
E. live output abilities to provide DV, DVC Pro, DVC Pro 50, and DVC Pro HD format streams
F. ability to create VoD file outputs to WebEx ARF format
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
A technician enters the diag system normal command for a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint. Which action must be done in the CLI before entering this command?
A. Logging must be enabled.
B. Calling services must be stopped.
C. All forced upgrades must be cleared.
D. The Telephone_Srvr service must be restarted.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance device is responsible for providing video streams to monitors after therespective layouts and views are received by the monitors?
A. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Operations Manager
B. Cisco IP Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix Viewer
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Manager
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
In a Cisco TelePresence MX300 G2, what is the minimum bandwidth for 1080p30?
A. 768 kbps
B. 1152 kbps
C. 1472 kbps
D. 1873 kbps
E. 2560 kbps
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A customer wants to know the options that are available when using all Cisco TelePresence SX Series endpoints in a multisite conference that is hosted locally. What are three capabilities of the Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint during a native multisite call? (Choose three.)
A. ability to change the local layout to prominent mode
B. ability to change the layout of remote participants to prominent mode
C. ability to change the Self-View status of remote participants
D. ability to control the camera of remote participants
E. ability to change the contact status of remote participants
F. ability to change the layout of remote participants to multisite mode
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-065 dumps
Management would like to find out when a particular multipoint control unit feature was enabled and who enabled it. Which menu option is the most appropriate when searching for that information?
A. Event Display Filter
B. Audit Log
C. Event Log
D. Syslog
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which three standards are supported for streaming live video on Cisco TCS? (Choose three.)
A. H.265
B. H.261
C. H.264
D. H.263
E. H.262
F. H.270
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 9
Which two issues does utilizing an IP network storage solution for IP video surveillance help overcome? (Choose two.)
A. analog to IP conversion
B. large, expandable storage space
C. physical security
D. scalability
E. faster bit rate for storage
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
Which two video endpoints can you set back to factory reset by using physical button presses? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco TelePresence C40
B. Cisco TelePresence EX90
C. Cisco TelePresence C60
D. Cisco TelePresence SX20
E. Cisco TelePresence C90
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 11
What is the main difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence?
A. Cisco Jabber registers to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to the VCS.
B. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence registers to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, whereas Cisco Jabber registers to the VCS.
C. Cisco Jabber has no video calling capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has video capabilities.
D. Cisco Jabber has no presence capabilities, whereas Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence has presence capabilities.
E. There is no difference between Cisco Jabber and Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence. They should not coexist in the same network.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
What is the proper procedure to manually reset a password on a Cisco TelePresence EX Series endpoint running software version TC7?
A. Use SSH to access the device and use the username “cisco” and the password “TANDBERG.”
B. Hold down the mute key on the touch display for 25 seconds and reset the password using the touch screen.
C. When the device is powered down, hold down the power button until the power light blinks twice, then press the power button twice.
D. Tap the power button four times within ten seconds and then use Telnet to connect to the device IP address.
E. Tap the power button five times while the device is powered off and when it boots, use Telnet to connect to the device within 60 seconds.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 11
Zhich is the Cisco recommended technique for verifying the `as-is’ state of the business?
A. Presenting root cause analysis
B. Discussing the Business Model Canvas
C. Modeling high volume parts of the customer’s business process
D. Using “The five whys” questioning approach
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which option represents a subject expert from a Cisco Channel Partner’s ecosystem recommended for you to use as a source of insight?
A. The customer’s lead procurement official
B. A government regulatory official familiar with the customer
C. A sales rep for one of the Partner’s competitors
D. An IT architect working at a software company that markets solutions bundled with the Channel Partner’s offerings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The business value approach helps you to do what? 100-105 pdf
A. Ensure that requirements gathering take the smallest possible resource and time
B. Use various techniques to add value through the discovery process
C. Bring sales opportunities earlier into the customer business roadmap, to avoid risks from possible budget cuts
D. Recommend services beyond the customer’s skill set, so you gain higher revenue
Correct Answer: B
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 14            100-105 dumps
Which is the preferred aid to help you structure discovery meetings with customers?
A. IT cost analysis
B. Business case for the last two proposals
C. An article with a checklist showing advantages of your product vs.competitors
D. Strategic Question Asking Framework
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
When discovering requirements, which behavior is appropriate?
A. End meetings earlier than planned to show a sense of urgency
B. Avoid taking notes, since you can always return for a follow up
C. Answer customer questions with details and numbers, to convince them you know what they need
D. Actively listen to the customer’s comments and effectively take notes
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which is recommended as a good source to provide requirements in a customer engagement?
A. Individuals at firms who have purchased the customer’s services
B. Subject experts from the company’s strategy organization
C. Consultants who did projects for the customer organization 3 years ago
D. 3rd party staffing specialists / recruiters hired by the customer to fill positions during a busy work season
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
When 802.1X is implemented, how do the client (supplicant) and authenticator communicate? 100-105 pdf
A. RADIUS
B. TACACS+
C. MAB
D. EAPOL
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which approach is recommended for gaining deeper insight into pain points raised by a senior customer business leader?
A. Inform the customer of some statistics about their competitors, to get a reaction
B. Ask open ended questions about goals and impacts from challenges
C. Lead an exercise to define revenue the customer could gain from using remote experts on sales calls
D. Speak with peers of the customer leader, to find out whether this person has a reputation for making problems sound bigger than they really are
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which is true of a Business Motivation Model? 100-105 dumps
A. It includes detailed financial goals for the customer
B. It companies the priorities across levels of the customer organization
C. It requires that you understand the customer’s bonus plan for executives
D. It describes influences that are behind customer priorities and operating activities
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 20
Which statement is true?
A. A viewpoint and statement of requirements are equivalent in accuracy
B. Viewpoints describe a stakeholder’s preference and desired capability
C. Requirements can be met, while viewpoints reflect stretch goals that are more difficult to realize
D. For a viewpoint to be considered, you should confirm at least three stakeholders agree it is a top priority
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
In computer networking a multicast address is an identifier for a group of hosts that have joined a multicast group. Multicast addressing can be used in the Link Layer (OSI Layer 2), such as Ethernet Multicast, as well as at the Internet Layer (OSI Layer 3) as IPv4 or IPv6 Multicast. Which two descriptions are correct regarding multicast addressing? ( choose two )
A. The first 23 bits of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
B. The last 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
C. To calculate the Layer 2 multicast address, the host maps the last 23 bits of the IP address into the last 24 bits of the MAC address. The high-order bit is set to 0.
D. The first 3 bytes (24 bits) of the multicast MAC address are 0x01-00-5E. This is a reserved value that indicates a multicast application.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
When troubleshooting an EIGRP connectivity problem, you notice that two connected EIGRP routers are not becoming EIGRP neighbors. A ping between the two routers was successful. What is the next thing that should be checked? 300-135 pdf
A. Verify that the EIGRP hello and hold timers match exactly.
B. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP peer command.
C. Verify that EIGRP broadcast packets are not being dropped between the two routers with the show ip EIGRP traffic command.
D. Verify that EIGRP is enabled for the appropriate networks on the local and neighboring router.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-135 dumps
How would you confirm on R1 that load balancing is actually occurring on the default- network (0.0.0.0)? 300-135 dumps
A. Use ping and the show ip route command to confirm the timers for each default network resets to 0.
B. Load balancing does not occur over default networks; the second route will only be used for failover.
C. Use an extended ping along with repeated show ip route commands to confirm the gateway of last resort address toggles back and forth.
D. Use the traceroute command to an address that is not explicitly in the routing table.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You have 2 NTP servers in your network – 10.1.1.1 and 10.1.1.2. You want to configure a Cisco router to use 10.1.1.2 as its NTP server before falling back to 10.1.1.1. Which commands will you use to configure the router?
A. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2
B. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 primary
C. ntp server 10.1.1.1
ntp server 10.1.1.2 prefer
D. ntp server 10.1.1.1 fallback
ntp server 10.1.1.2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen?
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up 300-135 dumps
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’. After several changes to the network addressing, routing schemes, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that the loopback address on R1 (2026::111:1) is not able to ping the loopback address on DSW2(2026::102:1).
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
On which device is the fault condition located?
A. R1
B. R2
C. R3
D. R4
E. DSW1
F. DSW2
G. ASW1
H. ASW2
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 dumps
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Enable OSPF authentication on the s0/0/0 interface using the ip ospf authentication message-digest command
B. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
C. Enable OSPF routing on the s0/0/0 interface using the network 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 area 12 command.
D. Redistribute the BGP route into OSPF using the redistribute BGP 65001 subnet command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address.
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
What is the solution to the fault condition?
A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command.
B. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat outside command.
C. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command.
D. Under the ip access-list standard nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255
command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The implementations group has been using the test bed to do a `proof-of-concept’ that requires both Client 1 and Client 2 to access the WEB Server at 209.65.200.241. After several changes to the network addressing, routing scheme, DHCP services, NTP services, layer 2 connectivity, FHRP services, and device security, a trouble ticket has been opened indicating that Client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 address. 300-135 pdf
Use the supported commands to isolated the cause of this fault and answer the following questions.
The fault condition is related to which technology?
A. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-list 10 command.
B. Under the global configuration mode enter no access-map vlan 10 command.
C. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan access-map test1 10 command.
D. Under the global configuration mode enter no vlan filter test1 vlan-list 10 command.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The command frame-relay map ip 10.121.16.8 102 broadcast was entered on the router. Which of the following statements is true concerning this command?
A. This command should be executed from the global configuration mode.
B. The IP address 10.121.16.8 is the local router port used to forward data.
C. 102 is the remote DLCI that will receive the information.
D. This command is required for all Frame Relay configurations.
E. The broadcast option allows packets, such as RIP updates, to be forwarded across the PVC.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
A. the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B. the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C. the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D. the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E. the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
200-155
Which three EIGRP routes will be present in the router R4’s routing table? (Choose three.) 200-155
A. 172.16.1.0/24
B. 10.1.10.0/30
C. 10.0.0.0/8
D. 10.1.11.0/30
E. 172.16.0.0/16
F. 192.168.1.0/24
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 4
Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states?
A. show ip ospf link-state
B. show ip ospf lsa database
C. show ip ospf neighbors
D. show ip ospf database
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
The following configuration is applied to a Layer 2 Switch:
interface fastethernet 0/4            200-155
switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security mac-address 0000.1111.1111
switchport port-security maximum 2
swithcport port-security
What is the result of the above configuration being applied to the switch?
A. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and up to two other hosts can connect to FastEthernet 0/4 simultaneously
B. A host with a mac address of 0000.1111.1111 and one other host can connect to Fast Ethernet 0/4 simultaneously
C. Violating addresses are dropped and no record of the violation is kept
D. The switch can send an SNMP message to the network management station
E. The port is effectively shutdown
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are three values that must be the same within a sequence of packets for Netflow to consider them a network flow? (Choose three.)
A. source IP address
B. source MAC address
C. egress interface
D. ingress interface
E. destination IP address
F. IP next-hop
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 8
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What are two characteristics of Frame Relay point-to-point subinterfaces? (Choose two.)  200-155
A. They create split-horizon issues.
B. They require a unique subnet within a routing domain.
C. They emulate leased lines.
D. They are ideal for full-mesh topologies.
E. They require the use of NBMA options when using OSPF.
Correct Answer: BC

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QUESTION 1
A cloud administrator for an enterprise organization must create and deploy a web application in the private cloud of the organization. The environment consists of two web servers: one application server and one database server. The application stack should be available only to Internet traffic while keeping the database and application server completely secure.
Which Cisco UCS Director component should the administrator use to simplify this task?
A. fenced application containers
B. vApp containers
C. VM containers
D. application containers
Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which option lists the different container types available in Cisco UCS Director under Menu Bar > Solutions > VACS Container?
A. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 3 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
B. Cisco VACS 3 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 2 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
C. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Internal), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (External), Cisco VACS Custom Container
D. Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Inbound), Cisco VACS 4 Tier (Outbound), Cisco VACS Dual Container
Answer: A
210-250
QUESTION 3                         210-250
A cloud administrator has deployed Cisco Prime Service Catalog. After deployment, which tool is used to build application models which are then deployed into Cisco Prime Service Catalog for consumption?
A. Heat Orchestration
B. Stack Designer
C. End-User Storefront
D. Administrative Portal
Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which option lists the orchestration types that can be selected when a user orders an application stack in Cisco Prime Service Catalog?
A. full, partial, none
B. automatic, semi-automatic, limited, none
C. standard service, VIX deployment, puppet, none
D. standard service, special service, automatic service
Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which option describes what end user portal access allows?
A. ordering of server and / or application environments based on preconfigured resources available to users access
B. deployment of templates and OVA files
C. sharing files with other portal users
D. registering Physical Compute resources to the environment
Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Where are the main fault logs for root cause analysis located?
A. on your local computer via an SSH session
B. on the server where the application is installed
C. on the database server
D. on the switch that connects the database and application server
Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Due to disk space constraints, the cloud administrator for a cloud service provider wants to see how much storage a particular organization is using for snapshots. Which report option in Cisco UCS Director provides that data? 210-250
A. Billing Report for a Customer
B. VM Activity Report by Group
C. Virtual Infrastructure and Asset Report
D. Storage Inventory Report for a Group
Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An administrator group is looking to on-board multiple users with Cisco Unified Communications Manager at one time. Which option should be used?
A. Bulk Administration Tool
B. Product Upgrade Tool
C. Command Lookup Tool
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager User Options Page
E. Cisco Upload Tool
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A user wants their name to show on their phone instead of their directory number. Which configuration item allows an administrator to do this?
A. Line Text Label
B. Alerting Name
C. External Phone Number Mask
D. Caller Name
E. Description
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A user would like all calls to be forwarded to voice mail. The user’s phone is not set up with a soft key for this feature. Which option accomplishes this configuration from within the Cisco Unified Communication Administrator Directory Number configuration page? 210-250
A. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward No Coverage External > Select voice mail check box
B. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Busy External > Select voice mail check box
C. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward All > Select voice mail check box
D. Call Forward and Pickup Settings > Forward Unregistered External > Select voice mail check box
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?
A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
PPPoE is composed of two main phases:
Active Discovery Phase–In this phase, the PPPoE client locates a PPPoE server, called an access concentrator. During this phase, a Session ID is assigned and the PPPoE layer is established.
PPP Session Phase–In this phase, PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method, allowing data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
300-175
Which one statement is true?          300-175
A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.
B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.
C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.
D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.
E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.
Correct Answer: E

Explanation:
You can filter what individual routes are sent (out) or received (in) to any interface within your EIGRP configuration.
One example is noted above. If you filter outbound, the next neighbor(s) will not know about anything except the 172.16.0.0/16 route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream. If you filter inbound, YOU won’t know about the route and therefore won’t send it to anyone else downstream.

QUESTION 3
For security purposes, an IPv6 traffic filter was configured under various interfaces on the local router. However, shortly after implementing the traffic filter, OSPFv3 neighbor adjacencies were lost. What caused this issue?
A. The traffic filter is blocking all ICMPv6 traffic.
B. The global anycast address must be added to the traffic filter to allow OSPFv3 to work properly.
C. The link-local addresses that were used by OSPFv3 were explicitly denied, which caused the neighbor relationships to fail.
D. IPv6 traffic filtering can be implemented only on SVIs.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
OSPFv3 uses link-local IPv6 addresses for neighbor discovery and other features, so if any IPv6 traffic filters are implemented be sure to include the link local address so that it is permitted in the filter list.

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the autonomous-system {autonomous-system-number} command?
A. It sets the EIGRP autonomous system number in a VRF.
B. It sets the BGP autonomous system number in a VRF.
C. It sets the global EIGRP autonomous system number.
D. It sets the global BGP autonomous system number.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
To configure the autonomous-system number for an Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) routing process to run within a VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) instance, use the 300-175 autonomous-system command in address-family configuration mode. To remove the autonomous-system for an EIGRP routing process from within a VPN VRF instance, use the no form of this command.

QUESTION 5
Which type of traffic does DHCP snooping drop?
A. discover messages
B. DHCP messages where the source MAC and client MAC do not match
C. traffic from a trusted DHCP server to client
D. DHCP messages where the destination MAC and client MAC do not match
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The switch validates DHCP packets received on the untrusted interfaces of VLANs with DHCP snooping enabled. The switch forwards the DHCP packet unless any of the following conditions occur (in which case the packet is dropped):
The switch receives a packet (such as a DHCPOFFER, DHCPACK, DHCPNAK, or DHCPLEASEQUERY packet) from a DHCP server outside the network or firewall.
The switch receives a packet on an untrusted interface, and the source MAC address and the DHCP client hardware address do not match. This check is performed only if the DHCP snooping MAC address verification option is turned on. · The switch receives a DHCPRELEASE or DHCPDECLINE message from an untrusted host with an entry in the DHCP snooping binding table, and the interface information in the binding table does not match the interface on which the message was received.
The switch receives a DHCP packet that includes a relay agent IP address that is not 0.0.0.0. To support trusted edge switches that are connected to untrusted aggregation-switch ports, you can enable the DHCP option-82 on untrusted port feature, which enables untrusted aggregation- switch ports to accept DHCP packets that include option-82 information. Configure the port on the edge switch that connects to the aggregation switch as a trusted port.

QUESTION 6
A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?
A. global synchronization
B. tail drop
C. random early detection
D. queue management algorithm
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
TCP global synchronization in computer networks can happen to TCP/IP flows during periods of congestion because each sender will reduce their transmission rate at the same time when packet loss occurs.
Routers on the Internet normally have packet queues, to allow them to hold packets when the network is busy, rather than discarding them.
Because routers have limited resources, the size of these queues is also limited. The simplest technique to limit queue size is known as tail drop. The queue is allowed to fill to its maximum size, and then any new packets are simply discarded, until there is space in the queue again. This causes problems when used on TCP/IP routers handling multiple TCP streams, especially when bursty traffic is present. While the 300-175 network is stable, the queue is constantly full, and there are no problems except that the full queue results in high latency. However, the introduction of a sudden burst of traffic may cause large numbers of established, steady streams to lose packets simultaneously.

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QUESTION 1
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF
300-206
QUESTION 3                                    300-206
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet traceC. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 7
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices. 300-206
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

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