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1.What   is   the  purpose  of   the  dialer-list  command  when  configuring  a  router   to   initiate  a
dial-on-demand routing ISDN call?
A.It defines call destination parameters.
B.It defines what constitutes interesting traffic.
C.It provides for optional call parameters.
D.It assigns a dialer-group to an interface.
2.What  are  three  disadvantages  of  a  router-on-a-stick  configuration  for  InterVLAN  routing?
(Choose three.)
A.InterVLAN routing cannot be filtered by the router.
B.The router becomes a single point of failure for the network.
C.Routers will not route STP BPDUs.
D.There is a possibility of inadequate bandwidth for each VLAN.
E.Additional overhead on the router can occur.
F.NetFlow Switching is required for InterVLAN accounting.
Correct:B D E
3.What  are  two  purposes  of  the  ACL  sub-command  in  the  crypto  isakmp  client  configuration
group {group-name | default\} command? (Choose two.)
A.enables split tunneling
B.disables split tunneling
C.indicates the protected range
D.indicates the unprotected range
Correct:A C
4.Which two routers support the use of Etherswitch modules and provide power to IP phones with
the use of an external power supply? (Choose two.)
A.Cisco 2650
B.Cisco 2691
C.Cisco 3725
D.Cisco 3745
Correct:A B
5.You  have  been  asked  to  provide  a  router with  thirty  10/100 Ethernet  interfaces  and  room  for
more  for  future  growth. The  router must  also provide  security  in  the  form of  firewalls  for  each
Ethernet interface.Which router should you install?
A.Cisco 7206
B.Cisco 7304
C.Cisco 7513
D.Cisco 7603
6.What does the Cisco 3725 have?
A.2 network module slots, 3 VWIC slots, and 2 AIM slots
B.1 network module slot, 3 VWIC slots, and 2 AIM slots
C.3 network module slots, 2 VWIC slots, and 2 AIM slots
D.2 network module slots, 3 VWIC slots, and 3 AIM slots

7.Which QoS technique avoids the problems that occur when tail drop is used as the congestion
avoidance mechanism on the router?
8.Which command displays the number of successful and failed calls?
A.show dialer
B.show interface
C.show isdn q931
D.show isdn active call
9.Which  technology allows a service provider  to support overlapping customer VLAN  IDs over
transparent LAN services?
A.802.1q tunneling
10.Which  implementation  of  SPAN  is  designed  to  support  source  ports,  source  VLANs,  and
destination ports across different switches?
11.Given  the configuration:access-list 101 permit  ip any anyaccess-list 101 deny  tcp any any eq
ftpdialer-list  2  protocol  ip  list  101Which  two  statements  about  the  configuration  are  true with
respect to FTP traffic and DDR? (Choose two.)
A.FTP traffic will be forwarded.
B.FTP traffic will not be forwarded.
C.FTP will cause the line to come up.
D.Since FTP uses two sockets, both must be defined to prevent packet forwarding.
Correct:A C
12.Which three statements are correct with regard to the IEEE 802.1Q standard? (Choose three.)
A.the packet is encapsulated with a 26 byte header and a 4 byte FCS
B.the IEEE 802.1Q frame format adds a 4 byte field to a Ethernet frame
C.the IEEE 802.1Q frame retains the original MAC destination address
D.the IEEE 802.1Q frame uses multicast destination of 0x01-00-0c-00-00
E.protocol uses point-to-point connectivity
F.protocol uses point-to-multipoint connectivity
Correct:B C E
13.What feature of the EZ VPN Remote makes it desirable to have Proxy DNS server support for
the PCs attached to the VPN?
A.Client mode with connect auto
B.Client mode with connect manual
C.Network Extension mode with connect auto
D.Network Extension mode with connect manual


14.Drag Drop question

Green choice4—->Yellow Choice1
Green choice1—->Yellow Choice2
Green choice5—->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3—->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2—->Yellow Choice5

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Which statement about Cisco UCS version compatibility is true?
A. All bundles (A, B, and C) must be the same version.
B. The B and C bundles must be the same revision.
C. The A bundle can be one revision higher than the B/C bundles.
D. The B/C bundles can be one revision higher than the A bundles.
< Correct Answer: C >


You have blade servers that run VMware ESXi. Which two tasks do you perform to ensure that all of the components in the Cisco UCS environment use jumbo
frames? (Choose two.)
A. Use a QoS policy for the jumbo frames.
B. Configure the MTU on the vSwitch.
C. Configure the fabric interconnect to support 9500-byte frames.
D. Configure the MTU on the vNIC.
E. Configure a QoS policy on the vSwitch.
< Correct Answer: AB >

You are troubleshooting an FCoE boot issue on a Cisco UCS C220 M3 server with a VIC 1225 CNA. Which two pieces of information can you directly infer from
the output of the show zone active command below? (Choose two.)
zone name Server_1-to-Storage vsan 11
pwwn 50:06:01:60:3b:a0:08:9f [Storage]
* fcid 0x3b000b [pwwn 20:00:00:25:b5:04:0a:02] [C22_Server]
A. The storage controller is not logged into the fabric.
B. The server is not logged into the fabric.
C. Only the storage controller is logged into the fabric.
D. Only the server is logged into the fabric.
E. The initiator and target cannot communicate because they are on the wrong VSAN.
F. The WWPN of the storage controller is mistyped.
G. The initiator and target cannot communicate because the zone name does not match the server name (C22_Server).
< Correct Answer: AD >

A customer is configuring an upstream disjoint Layer 2 network in a Cisco UCS domain. So far they have configured the following:
Fabric Interconnects are in switching mode.
There is symmetrical configuration for high availability.
There are no overlapping VLANs.
Each vNIC is communicating with one disjoint Layer 2 network.
After validating the above, the customer is still having issues with network connectivity.
What is the issue?
A. Overlapping VLANs are allowed in a disjoint Layer 2 network.
B. The vNIC configuration is incorrect and must communicate with two or more disjoint layer 2 networks.
C. The fabric interconnect must be in end-host mode for a disjoint Layer 2 network.
D. Asymmetrical configuration for high availability needs to be configured.
< Correct Answer: C >

The Core File Exporter automatically exports cores to a remote server as they are generated. Which protocol does it use for this action?
< Correct Answer: D >

How does the FSM react after an error or timeout at a stage?
A. stops
B. retries until successful
C. continues
D. retries that stage at scheduled intervals
E. raises faults and continues
< Correct Answer: D >

You attempt to boot a supported Linux operating system live image from the eUSB in a Cisco UCS blade- server environment, but the boot fails. Which option is
the most likely cause of the failure?
A. In the Service Profile, a device other than the eUSB is set first in the boot order for the server.
B. The eUSB license is unavailable or the grace period of the license is expired.
C. The blade servers are unable to boot from the eUSB. The eUSB is used only for virtual machines.
D. Access to the eUSB is disabled for that blade server by Power Manager.
< Correct Answer: A >

You are installing Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 on a Cisco UCS C210 M2 server, and the installer does not see local storage on the LSI MegaRAID SAS
9260-4i controller that is installed. Which statement explains the issue?
A. The driver is not included in the installer DVD. Press F6 to load the LSI RAID driver from CD or virtual media.
B. The virtual disk is not created and online.
C. The LSI 9260-4i is only supported by Red Hat Enterprise Linux and VMware vSphere 4.0 and later.
D. The installer DVD for Microsoft Windows Server 2008 R2 did not include the LSI driver until SP2.
< Correct Answer: B >

Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true based on the output of “show service- profile circuit server 1/3”. (Choose three.)


A. vnic eth0 is pinned to module 0 interface 1.
B. vnic eth1 is pinned to module 1 interface 6.
C. vnic eth0 is pinned to port channel 1.
D. vnic eth1 is pinned to port channel 6.
E. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth0.
F. A LAN pin group is configured on vnic eth1.
< Correct Answer: BCF >








Refer to Exhibit 4. Which selection is true regarding the configured Write Cache policy on the RAID adapter?
A. Data written is stored in the cache and also written through to the physical drives
B. Data written is stored in the cache and will be written to the physical drives when bandwidth is available
C. Write Through mode poses the risk of data corruption if a BBU is not installed
D. Write Through mode falls back to Write Back mode if the BBU fails
< Correct Answer: C >

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Which two networking devices operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: AE

Which two networking devices forward data based on destination MAC address? (Choose two.)
A. Repeater
B. Bridge
C. Switch
D. Router
E. Hub
Correct Answer: BC

Which two network topologies are the most popular in switching? (Choose two.)
A. Bus
B. Token passing bus
C. Star
D. Extended star
E. Ring
Correct Answer: CD

Which device would you select to partition a network into VLANs?
A. repeater
B. bridge
C. switch
D. router
E. hub
Correct Answer: C

At which layer of the OSI model does TCP operate?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: D

Which two layers of the OSI model relate to the transmission of bits over the wire and packet forwarding
based on destination IP address? (Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Correct Answer: AC

Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E

Which three terms are used to describe data at Layers 1, 2, and 4 of the OSI model? (Choose three.)
B. Bits
C. Sequences
D. Segments
E. Packets
F. Frames
Correct Answer: BDF

Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE

Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite network access layer?
(Choose two.)
A. 1
B. 2C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Correct Answer: AB

In an IEEE 802.3 Ethernet frame, what is the significance of the DSAP field?
A. The DSAP field specifies the TCP or UDP port that is associated with the transport protocol.
B. The DSAP field is only used on United States Department of Defense networks to indicate the
information classification level.
C. The DSAP field is only used in Ethernet II frames.
D. The DSAP field indicates the network layer protocol.
Correct Answer: D

Which field in an Ethernet II frame performs the same function as the DSAP field in an 802.3 Ethernet
A. Start of frame
B. EtherType
C. Frame check sequence
D. Subnetwork Access Protocol
E. Logical Link Control
Correct Answer: B

What are two features of a bridge? (Choose two.)
A. Reliable transmission
B. Operate at OSI Layer 2
C. Operate at OSI Layer 3
D. Create multiple broadcast domains
E. Create multiple collision domains
F. Flood input packets to all ports
G. Drop IP packets with invalid destination ports
Correct Answer: BE

What are three reasons that switches supersede bridges? (Choose three.)
A. Smaller frame buffers decrease latency.
B. Forward, filter, or flood frames.
C. Multiple simultaneous communications between ports.
D. Larger inspection engine allows for higher throughput.
E. Switches have many ports.
Correct Answer: BCE

What action does a switch take if the destination MAC address is unknown?
A. Discard frame
B. Send ICMP unreachable message to source
C. Flood packet on all ports
D. Compare destination IP address against an ACL to determine if it is permitted
E. Send gratuitous ARP on all ports and wait for reply before forwarding
Correct Answer: C

Which statement describes the purpose of the MAC address forwarding table of a switch?
A. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the best route to a destination.
B. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine the output port.
C. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if the packet is routable.
D. The switch consults the forwarding table to determine if access control permits the packet.
Correct Answer: B

What are two attributes of a VLAN? (Choose two.)
A. A VLAN defines a collision domain.
B. A VLAN defines a broadcast domain.
C. Broadcasts are flooded to all VLANs.
D. Collisions are flooded to all VLANs.
E. A Layer 3 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
F. A Layer 2 device is required to route packets between VLANs.
Correct Answer: BE

Which four statements indicate unique properties of VLAN 1 on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose four.)
A. VLAN 1 is used to flood multicast traffic.
B. VLAN 1 cannot be deleted.
C. VLAN 1 is used for Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. VLAN 1 is used for VTP advertisements.
E. VLAN 1 defines a collision domain.
F. VLAN 1 defines a broadcast domain.
Correct Answer: BCDF

Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D

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