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The latest update of Microsoft Fundamentals SC-900 dumps exam practice questions

microsoft sc-900 exam updated

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Microsoft SC-900 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) feature can you use to provide just-in-time (JIT) access to manage Azure
resources?

A. conditional access policies
B. Azure AD Identity Protection
C. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
D. authentication method policies

Correct Answer: C

Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM) provides just-in-time privileged access to Azure AD and Azure
resources

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

QUESTION 2

HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant.
You create sensitivity labels as shown in the Sensitivity Labels exhibit.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2

The Confidential/External sensitivity label is configured to encrypt files and emails when applied to content. The
sensitivity labels are published as shown in the Published exhibit.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2-1

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2-2

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q2-3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/sensitivity-labels?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 3

Which score measures an organization\’s progress in completing actions that help reduce risks associated to data
protection and regulatory standards?

A. Microsoft Secure Score
B. Productivity Score
C. Secure score in Azure Security Center
D. Compliance score

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/compliance-manager?view=o365-worldwide
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/compliance-score-calculation?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 4

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q4-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/overview

QUESTION 5

HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q5-1

Biometrics templates are stored locally on a device.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/security/identity-protection/hello-for-business/hello-overview

QUESTION 6

HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q6-1

Microsoft Azure Sentinel is a scalable, cloud-native, security information event management (SIEM) and security
orchestration automated response (SOAR) solution.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sentinel/overview

QUESTION 7

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q7

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q7-1

Box 1: Yes
The MailItemsAccessed event is a mailbox auditing action and is triggered when mail data is accessed by mail protocols and mail clients.

Box 2: No
Basic Audit retains audit records for 90 days.
Advanced Audit retains all Exchange, SharePoint, and Azure Active Directory audit records for one year. This is accomplished by a default audit log retention policy that retains any audit record that contains the value of Exchange,
SharePoint, or AzureActiveDirectory for the Workload property (which indicates the service in which the activity occurred) for one year.

Box 3: yes
Advanced Audit in Microsoft 365 provides high-bandwidth access to the Office 365 Management Activity API.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/advanced-audit?view=o365-worldwide
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/auditing-solutions-overview?view=o365-worldwide#licensingrequirements
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/servicedescriptions/microsoft-365-service-descriptions/microsoft-365-tenantlevel-services-licensing-guidance/microsoft-365-security-compliance-licensing-guidance#advanced-audit

QUESTION 8

You plan to implement a security strategy and place multiple layers of defense throughout a network infrastructure.
Which security methodology does this represent?

A. threat modeling
B. identity as the security perimeter
C. defense in depth
D. the shared responsibility model

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/secure-network-connectivity-azure/2-what-is-defense-indepth

QUESTION 9

Which Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) feature can you use to restrict Microsoft Intune-managed devices from
accessing corporate resources?

A. network security groups (NSGs)
B. Azure AD Privileged Identity Management (PIM)
C. conditional access policies
D. resource locks

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10

HOTSPOT
Select the answer that correctly completes the sentence.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q10-1

Microsoft Defender for Identity is a cloud-based security solution that leverages your on-premises Active Directory
signals to identify, detect, and investigate advanced threats, compromised identities, and malicious insider actions
directed at your organization.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/defender-for-identity/what-is

QUESTION 11

HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant named contoso.com that contains two users named User1 and User2. The tenant uses
Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption
(OME). User1 plans to send emails that contain attachments as shown in the following table.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11

User2 plans to send emails that contain attachments as shown in the following table.

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11-1

For which emails will the attachments be protected? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11-2

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q11-3

Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-gb/office/introduction-to-irm-for-email-messagesbb643d33-4a3f-4ac7-9770-fd50d95f58dc?ui=en-usandrs=en-gbandad=gb#FileTypesforIRM
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/ome?view=o365-worldwide https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/office365/servicedescriptions/exchange-online-service-description/exchange-online-limits#message-limits-1

QUESTION 12

You have a new Microsoft 365 tenant.
You need to ensure that custom trainable classifiers can be created in the tenant.
To which role should you be assigned to perform the configuration?

A. Security administrator
B. Security operator
C. Global administrator
D. Compliance administrator

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/classifier-get-started-with?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 13

HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

microsoft sc-900 exam questions q13-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/governance/policy/overview

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This is the latest Cisco 350-701 scor dumps

latest updated

Keep it simple, I just want to simply express what I posted today!

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The latest and complete Cisco 350-701 exam in November has 359 questions and answers. We shared 13 questions for free, you can test online first. You can also directly enter the Lead4Pass 350-701 channel https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html. It is guaranteed to pass the exam 100% successfully.

Cisco 350-701 Online Practice Test

Verify the results at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

What is the primary benefit of deploying an ESA in hybrid mode?

A. You can fine-tune its settings to provide the optimum balance between security and performance for your environment

B. It provides the lowest total cost of ownership by reducing the need for physical appliances

C. It provides maximum protection and control of outbound messages

D. It provides email security while supporting the transition to the cloud

Cisco Hybrid Email Security is a unique service offering that facilitates the deployment of your email security
infrastructure both on premises and in the cloud. You can change the number of on-premises versus cloudusers at any
time throughout the term of your contract, assuming the total number of users does not change.This allows for
deployment flexibility as your organization\\’s needs change.

 

QUESTION 2

Which two mechanisms are used to control phishing attacks? (Choose two)

A. Enable browser alerts for fraudulent websites.

B. Define security group memberships.

C. Revoke expired CRL of the websites.

D. Use antispyware software.

E. Implement email filtering techniques.

 

QUESTION 3

Which proxy mode must be used on Cisco WSA to redirect TCP traffic with WCCP?

A. transparent

B. redirection

C. forward

D. proxy gateway

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Aug2013/CVDWebSecurityUsingCiscoWSADesignGuideAUG13.pdf

 

QUESTION 4

The Cisco ASA must support TLS proxy for encrypted Cisco Unified Communications traffic. Where must the ASA be
added on the Cisco UC Manager platform?

A. Certificate Trust List

B. Endpoint Trust List

C. Enterprise Proxy Service

D. Secured Collaboration Proxy

 

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-701 exam questions q5

Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

What is causing this issue?

A. No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.

B. The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

C. Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.

D. Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/215470-site-to-sitevpn-configuration-on-ftd-ma.html

 

QUESTION 6

What is managed by Cisco Security Manager?

A. access point

B. WSA

C. ASA

D. ESA

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/security-manager/index.html

 

QUESTION 7

Which Cisco solution does Cisco Umbrella integrate with to determine if a URL is malicious?

A. AMP

B. AnyConnect

C. DynDNS

D. Talos

When Umbrella receives a DNS request, it uses intelligence to determine if the request is safe, malicious or
risky–meaning the domain contains both malicious and legitimate content. Safe and malicious requests are routed as
usual or blocked, respectively. Risky requests are routed to our cloud-based proxy for deeper inspection. The Umbrella
proxy uses Cisco Talos web reputation and other third-party feeds to determine if a URL is malicious.

 

QUESTION 8

What are two differences between a Cisco WSA that is running in transparent mode and one running in explicit mode?
(Choose two)

A. When the Cisco WSA is running in transparent mode, it uses the WSA\\’s own IP address as the HTTP request
destination.

B. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in explicit mode.

C. The Cisco WSA is configured in a web browser only if it is running in transparent mode.

D. The Cisco WSA uses a Layer 3 device to redirect traffic only if it is running in transparent mode.

E. The Cisco WSA responds with its own IP address only if it is running in transparent mode.

The Cisco Web Security Appliance (WSA) includes a web proxy, a threat analytics engine, antimalware engine, policy
management, and reporting in a single physical or virtual appliance. The main use of the Cisco WSA is to protect users
from accessing malicious websites and being infected by malware.You can deploy the Cisco WSA in two different
modes:?Explicit forward mode?Transparent modeIn explicit forward mode, the client is configured to explicitly use the
proxy, subsequently sending all web traffic to the proxy. Because the client knows there is a proxy and sends all traffic
to the proxy in explicit forward mode, the client does not perform a DNS lookup of the domain before requesting the
URL. The Cisco WSA is responsible for DNS resolution, as well.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/tech/content-networking/web-cache-communicationsprotocolwccp/index.html->Therefore answer D is correct as redirection can be done on Layer 3 device only.In transparent mode, the client is unaware its traffic is being sent to a proxy (Cisco WSA) and, as a result, the client uses DNS to resolve the domain name in the URL and send the web request destined for the web server (not the proxy). When you configure the Cisco WSA in transparent mode, you need to identify a network choke point with a redirection device (a Cisco ASA) to redirect traffic to the proxy.

WSA in Transparent modeReference: CCNP And CCIE Security Core SCOR 350-701 Official Cert Guide-> Therefore in
Transparent mode, WSA uses its own IP address to initiate a new connection the Web Server(in step 4 above)->
Answer E is correct.Answer C is surely not correct as WSA cannot be configured in a web browser in either
mode.Answer A seems to be correct but it is not. This answer is correct if it states “When the Cisco WSA is running
intransparent mode, it uses the WSA\\’s own IP address as the HTTP request source” (not destination).

 

QUESTION 9

Which PKI enrollment method allows the user to separate authentication and enrollment actions and also provides an
option to specify HTTP/TFTP commands to perform file retrieval from the server?

A. url

B. terminal

C. profile

D. selfsigned

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/public-key-infrastructure-pki/211333-IOSPKIDeployment-Guide-Initial-Design.html

 

QUESTION 10

An organization is trying to implement micro-segmentation on the network and wants to be able to gain visibility on the applications within the network. The solution must be able to maintain and force compliance. Which product should be used to meet these requirements?

A. Cisco Umbrella

B. Cisco AMP

C. Cisco Stealthwatch

D. Cisco Tetration

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/data-center-analytics/tetration-analytics/solutionoverviewc22-739268.pdf

 

QUESTION 11

The main function of northbound APIs in the SDN architecture is to enable communication between which two areas of
a network?

A. SDN controller and the cloud

B. management console and the SDN controller

C. management console and the cloud

D. SDN controller and the management solution

 

QUESTION 12

Which flaw does an attacker leverage when exploiting SQL injection vulnerabilities?

A. user input validation in a web page or web application

B. Linux and Windows operating systems

C. database

D. web page images

SQL injection usually occurs when you ask a user for input, like their username/userid, but the user gives(“injects”) you
an SQL statement that you will unknowingly run on your database. For example:Look at the following example, which
creates a SELECT statement by adding a variable (txtUserId) to a selectstring. The variable is fetched from user input
(getRequestString):txtUserId = getRequestString(“UserId”);txtSQL = “SELECT * FROM Users WHERE UserId = ” +
txtUserId;If user enter something like this: “100 OR 1=1” then the SQL statement will look like this:SELECT * FROM
Users WHERE UserId = 100 OR 1=1;The SQL above is valid and will return ALL rows from the “Users” table, since OR
1=1 is always TRUE. Ahacker might get access to all the user names and passwords in this database.

 

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. What does the number 15 represent in this configuration?

cisco 350-701 exam questions q13

A. access list that identifies the SNMP devices that can access the router

B. interval in seconds between SNMPv3 authentication attempts

C. number of possible failed attempts until the SNMPv3 user is locked out

D. privilege level for an authorized user to this router

The syntax of this command is shown below: snmp-server group [group-name {v1 | v2c | v3 [auth | noauth | priv]}] [read
read-view] [ write write-view] [notify notify-view] [access access-list] The command above restricts which IP source
addresses are allowed to access SNMP functions on the router. You could restrict SNMP access by simply applying an
interface ACL to block incoming SNMP packets that don\\’t come from trusted servers. However, this would not be as
effective as using the global SNMP commands shown in this recipe. Because you can apply this method once for the
whole router, it is much simpler than applying ACLs to block SNMP on all interfaces separately. Also, using interface
ACLs would block not only SNMP packets intended for this router, but also may stop SNMP packets that just happened
to be passing through on their way to some other destination device.

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
DAEAABCDDECDDAB

PS. Cisco 350-701 exam PDF

Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1LVh707ZFnXXMXnWHSgYRDGhgicZHeNs1/view?usp=sharing

Thank you for reading! Keep things simple! Get the complete Cisco 350-701 exam questions and answers https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html. Guarantee the successful passing of the exam.

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The latest update of Cisco 100-490 exam questions are updated from Lead4Pass

Cisco CCIT is a very popular exam in Cisco certification.
The latest update shares the Cisco CCIT 100-490 exam dumps and online practice test questions to help you pass the exam successfully.

If you are a novice, you should first go to the official Cisco platform to learn about the latest 100-490 Supporting Cisco Routing & Switching Network Devices exam basic information
(Exam overview, Exam preparation, Schedule an exam, Frequently asked questions). Knowing this information will help you do a good job ahead of time. Preparation.

Of course, the easiest way is to practice exams and get a complete Cisco 100-490 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/100-490.html (60 Q&A).

Cisco 100-490 exam practice

The answer is obtained at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Which two ports on a laptop are used to gain console access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)

A. DB-9
B. USB
C. DVI
D. RJ-11
E. RJ-45 Ethernet

 

QUESTION 2

An Ethernet interface is up and the line protocol is down. What are two possible causes? (Choose two.)

A. There is a speed or duplex mismatch with the remote device.
B. There is a Layer 2 mismatch in the encapsulation type.
C. The Ethernet interface has been manually disabled.
D. Keepalives are not being received by the local device.
E. The Ethernet cable might not be attached properly.

 

QUESTION 3

What are two components of a WAN connection? (Choose two.)

A. CSU/DSU
B. router
C. bridge
D. hub
E. switch

 

QUESTION 4

What is the correct IPv6 address notation?

A. 2001:0DB8::/128
B. 2001:0DB8:0::
C. 2001:0DB8::1:1:1:1:1
D. 2001:0DB8:130F:0000:0000:7000:0000:140B

 

QUESTION 5

Cisco NX-OS has added the ability to use which type of custom scripting to help manage user networks?

A. C++
B. Collective
C. SQL
D. Python

 

QUESTION 6

What is the primary method for recovering or upgrading a Cisco network device system image?

A. USB storage
B. FTP
C. the tftpdnld command
D. the xmodem command

 

QUESTION 7

Which two commands are valid for copying a saved configuration to RAM? (Choose two.)

A. copy startup-config running-config
B. copy running-config startup-config
C. copy tftp running-config
D. copy running-config tftp
E. copy tftp startup-config

 

QUESTION 8

Which Cisco CPAK 100GBASE module supports Multimode Fiber cable?

A. Cisco CPAK-100G-CWDM4
B. Cisco CPAK-100G-LR4
C. Cisco CPAK-100G-ER4L
D. Cisco CPAK-100G-SR4

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/interfaces-modules/transceivermodules/data_sheet_c78-728110.html

 

QUESTION 9

Which type of Cisco console cable is used to connect a laptop to the console port on a Cisco router?

A. straight-through
B. fiber
C. crossover
D. rollover

 

QUESTION 10

Which two statements about a SmartJack are true? (Choose two.)

A. It provides signal conversion.
B. It acts as a concentration point for dial-in and dial-out connections.
C. It operates at Layer 2 of the OSI model.
D. It provides channel testing.
E. It regenerates the signal to compensate for signal degradation from line transmission.

 

QUESTION 11

Which bits represent the boot field in the configuration register value?

A. highest two bits
B. lowest two bits
C. highest four bits
D. lowest four bits

 

QUESTION 12

Which command sends an echo request packet to the target host and then waits for an echo response message?

A. echo
B. access
C. ping
D. connect

 

QUESTION 13

What are two purposes of a USB thumb drive? (Choose two.)

A. to save the system log
B. to copy configuration files to and from a PC
C. to save router hardware information
D. to copy IOS images to and from a PC
E. to increase system memory size

 

QUESTION 14

Which command displays a list of file systems that are available on Cisco devices?

A. show memory
B. show directory
C. show file system
D. show version

 

QUESTION 15

Which type of transceiver module is used for 40 Gigabit Ethernet connectivity?

A. SFP+
B. GBIC
C. QSFP+
D. XFP

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/interfaces-modules/40-gigabit-modules/index.html#:~:text=The%20
Cisco%20QSFP%20BiDi%20transceiver,10%20Gigabit%20Ethernet%20fiber%20infrastructure

Verification place

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
ABABABDDCACDDAEDCBDCC

PS. Cisco 100-490 exam PDF

Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1tqpAwty7fhVlbBDQcaLzfiTRQb-r1JGY/view?usp=sharing

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List of all Microsoft Role-based exam questions:

  • Administrator

Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Azure Administrator Associate (Legacy)

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Exam MS-740: Troubleshooting Microsoft Teams (beta)

Microsoft 365 Certified: Teams Support Engineer Associate

Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services

Exam MD-100: Windows 10

Exam MD-101: Managing Modern Desktops

Microsoft 365 Certified: Modern Desktop Administrator Associate

MTA: Windows Operating System Fundamentals

  • AI Engineer

AI Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam AI-102: Designing and Implementing a Microsoft Azure AI Solution

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Engineer Associate

Exam AI-100: Designing and Implementing an Azure AI Solution

Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Fundamentals

  • App Maker

App Maker exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

  • Business Analyst

Business Analyst exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam PL-200: Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform Functional Consultant Associate

MCSA: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Operations

MCSE: Business Applications

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

Exam MB6-894: Development, Extensions, and Deployment for Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance

Exam MB2-716: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Customization and Configuration

Exam MB6-897: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Retail

Exam MB6-898: Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Talent

  • Business Owner

Business Owner exam certification exam questions:

Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam MB-910: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (CRM)

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (CRM)

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

  • Business User

Business User exam certification exam questions:

Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Exam SC-900: Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam PL-900: Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals

Exam MB-910: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (CRM)

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Exam MO-400: Microsoft Outlook (Outlook and Outlook 2019)

Microsoft Certified: Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

  • Data Analyst

Data Analyst exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam DA-100: Analyzing Data with Microsoft Power BI

Microsoft Certified: Data Analyst Associate

MCSA: BI Reporting

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Fundamentals

MCSA: SQL 2016 BI Development

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

Exam 70-778: Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Power BI

Exam 70-767: Implementing a Data Warehouse using SQL

  • Data Engineer

Data Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam DP-203: Data Engineering on Microsoft Azure

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam DP-200: Implementing an Azure Data Solution

Exam DP-201: Designing an Azure Data Solution

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Engineer Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam 70-467: Designing Business Intelligence Solutions with Microsoft SQL Server

Exam 70-464: Developing Microsoft SQL Server Databases

Exam 70-465: Designing Database Solutions for Microsoft SQL Server

Exam 70-466: Implementing Data Models and Reports with Microsoft SQL Server

  • Data Scientist

Data Scientist exam certification exam questions:

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Exam DP-100: Designing and Implementing a Data Science Solution on Azure

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Scientist Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure AI Fundamentals

  • Database Administrator

Database Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam DP-300: Administering Relational Databases on Microsoft Azure

MCSA: SQL Server 2012/2014

Microsoft Certified: Azure Database Administrator Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure Data Fundamentals

MCSA: SQL 2016 Database Administration

MCSE: Data Management and Analytics

Exam 70-463: Implementing a Data Warehouse with Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014

Exam 70-462: Administering Microsoft SQL Server 2012/2014 Databases

Exam 70-761: Querying Data with Transact-SQL

  • Developer

Developer exam certification exam questions:

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Exam MB-500: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Finance and Operations Apps Developer

Exam 62-193: Technology Literacy for Educators

Microsoft Certified: Azure Developer Associate (Legacy)

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Exam PL-200: Microsoft Power Platform Functional Consultant

Exam 98-382: Introduction to Programming Using JavaScript

MTA: Database Fundamentals

  • DevOps Engineer

DevOps Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Exam AZ-120: Planning and Administering Microsoft Azure for SAP Workloads

Exam AZ-400: Designing and Implementing Microsoft DevOps Solutions

Microsoft Certified: DevOps Engineer Expert

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

  • Functional Consultant

Functional Consultant exam certification exam questions:

Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam MB-800: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Business Central Functional Consultant

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant Associate

Exam MB-330: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management

Exam MB-310: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Finance

Exam MB-340: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Commerce Functional Consultant (beta)

Exam MB-320: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management, Manufacturing

Exam MB-220: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Marketing

Exam MB-300: Microsoft Dynamics 365: Core Finance and Operations

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Customer Service Functional Consultant Associate (Legacy)

  • Identity And Access Administrator

Identity And Access Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-300: Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Identity and Access Administrator Associate

  • Information Protection Administrator

Information Protection Administrator exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Information Protection Administrator Associate

  • Network Engineer

Network Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Microsoft Certified: Azure Network Engineer Associate

Exam AZ-700: Designing and Implementing Microsoft Azure Networking Solutions (beta)

  • Risk Practitioner

Risk Practitioner exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Information Protection Administrator Associate

  • Security Engineer

Security Engineer exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-400: Microsoft Information Protection Administrator

Exam AZ-500: Microsoft Azure Security Technologies

Exam SC-200: Microsoft Security Operations Analyst

Exam SC-300: Microsoft Identity and Access Administrator

Microsoft Certified: Security Operations Analyst Associate

Microsoft Certified: Identity and Access Administrator Associate

Microsoft Certified: Information Protection Administrator Associate

Microsoft Certified: Azure Security Engineer Associate

  • Security Operations Analyst

Security Operations Analyst exam certification exam questions:

Exam SC-200: Microsoft Security Operations Analyst

Microsoft Certified: Security Operations Analyst Associate

  • Solution Architect

Solution Architect exam certification exam questions:

Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Expert (Legacy)

Exam MB-600: Microsoft Dynamics 365 + Power Platform Solution Architect

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 + Power Platform Solution Architect Expert

Exam AZ-304: Microsoft Azure Architect Design

Exam AZ-303: Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies

Microsoft Certified: Azure for SAP Workloads Specialty

Exam AZ-120: Planning and Administering Microsoft Azure for SAP Workloads

Exam PL-600: Microsoft Power Platform Solution Architect

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform Solution Architect Expert

Microsoft Certified: Azure Solutions Architect Expert

  • Student

Student exam certification exam questions:

Exam MB-920: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (ERP)

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Exam SC-900: Microsoft Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

Exam PL-900: Microsoft Power Platform Fundamentals

Exam MB-910: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals (CRM)

Exam DP-900: Microsoft Azure Data Fundamentals

Exam AI-900: Microsoft Azure AI Fundamentals

Exam MB-901: Microsoft Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Dynamics 365 Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Security, Compliance, and Identity Fundamentals

  • Technology Manager

Technology Manager exam certification exam questions:

Exam AZ-900: Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Exam PL-100: Microsoft Power Platform App Maker

Microsoft Certified: Azure Fundamentals

Microsoft Certified: Power Platform App Maker Associate

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